7 votes
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Do all languages have the same set of grammatical relations?

I assume, based on the your posts elsewhere, that by 'sentence parts', you are referring to grammatical relations (GRs) like subject, object, etc. In the future, it would be clearer for you to call ...
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4 votes
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Why is it that direct object may be marked with either ACC or GEN case, depending on the verb in Slavic languages?

You mix up two notions, subcategorisation and genitive objects. In the case of "need" etc. taking a genitive complement, it's just convention. In Slavic the genitive used to serve as a partitive so ...
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  • 2,479
4 votes
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Do languages with cases frequently have verbs which use particular cases for their objects?

Atamiri's answer provided the key term: non-canonical marking. This question is easier to investigate via that term. Googling that, I found this ebook (of a 2001 book): Non-Canonical Marking of ...
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  • 229
4 votes

Do languages with cases frequently have verbs which use particular cases for their objects?

Yes, they do - in general, it’s always language-specific. There may be morphosyntactic alternations (e.g. two cases alternate depending on the governing verb’s polarity) and lexico-semantic ...
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  • 2,479
4 votes

Do languages with cases frequently have verbs which use particular cases for their objects?

I understand the question as follows: Do all (or a notable majority of) languages "with cases" make use of at least one construction for bivalent verbs where the non-subject argument is a ...
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3 votes
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direct object and indirect object

That's correct. In English, a ditransitive verb (one that takes both a direct and an indirect object) can usually have two different word orders: S V D to I, or S V I D. In other words, "he gave the ...
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3 votes

Why is it that direct object may be marked with either ACC or GEN case, depending on the verb in Slavic languages?

Because the genitive case expresses also parts, like 'some, any'. I can give you examples from Croatian (BCMS): Popio sam vode. Drink.perf.past.masc aux.1.sg water.gen.sg I drank (some) water. Popio ...
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3 votes

What percentage of verbs in English take both a direct and an indirect object?

As John Lawler notes in his comment, the big problem is defining the class of verbs you mean. Typically, we use "give" as an example of a verb that can have both an indirect and direct ...
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2 votes

What percentage of verbs in English take both a direct and an indirect object?

I am not a linguist by trade, so I don't know if I should even attempt to answer this, but here it goes because curiosity is killing this cat. In an attempt to answer my own question, I simply took ...
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  • 313
2 votes

Question about habitual aspect and object licensing in English

Is it reasonable to assume that the habitual aspect in (4)-(6) contributes to licensing plural objects in these data? No. Your examples are not ungrammatical, and your question proceeds from false ...
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  • 189
2 votes

How to know when to use a direct and indirect object pronoun

In many languages, including French and English, verbs generally take zero to three nouns as "arguments". Zero: "it's raining" One: "I'm walking" Two: "I'm eating a cake" Three: "I'm giving you a ...
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2 votes

Intransitive verbs that take Indirect objects

Serbian has something like that, if I am understanding you right. Some Serbian intransitive sentences can still have dative, genitive and/or locative arguments; an example for this would be она му[D] ...
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1 vote

How could we say it is a “object” by the definition?

Your definition is faulty - it is a coalescence of two different possible meanings of "object". If you accept the phrase "Object of a preposition" (not all accounts of grammar do) then the ...
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  • 6,464
1 vote

How do we explain the fact that agreement comes from the object with 'there'?

The comments reflect the complexity of "there" subjects, and I'm fairly certain that jlawler can fill us in on previous work on the topic. I will just long-comment on data problems. First, 'there' can ...
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1 vote

How do we explain the fact that agreement comes from the object with 'there'?

'The man' in your sentence is not an object, since 'to be' cannot have objects at all, neither direct objects, nor indirect ones. In your sentence 'the man' is the subject of the sentence, and, ...
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1 vote

Intransitive verbs that take Indirect objects

Latin uti "to use" takes an ablative complement: aratro utor "I am using a plow".
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  • 1,347
1 vote

Which languages have Subject-object agreement in relative clauses?

I would not call this object-agreement because (to my knowledge) it also holds for non-object relative clauses, such as adverbial relative clauses (but not for subject-relative clauses, as I'm sure ...
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