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31

Actually, “autarky” and “autarchy” are two different words. The former means “self-sufficiency” and comes from the Greek arkein “to suffice”. The latter means “absolute rule” and comes from Greek arkhē “rule”. They are pronounced the same in English, but not in Greek.


24

English fire is not derived from Greek πυρ. Both fire and πυρ come originally from the Proto-Indo-European root *paəwr̥. Greek simplified the *aəw vowel sequence to /ū/, but kept the consonants. Proto-Germanic was *fūr, similar to Greek, but all Germanic voiceless stops like *p became homorganic fricatives like *f as part of the group of consonant ...


24

As jlawer says, English "fire" doesn't actually come from Greek pŷr. "Pyre" does, but that's a borrowing (via Latin), and it's pretty clear how it happened. Instead, English and Greek share a common ancestor (Proto-Indo-European), which split into Pre-Proto-Germanic and Proto-Hellenic (and many other branches) several thousand years ago. One of the ...


23

Greek had the /h/ phoneme only at the beginning of a word, and it was marked with a diacritic (rough breathing sign) rather than with a letter. Koine Greek lost the /h/ phoneme and early manuscripts (such as Codex Sinaiticus and Codex Vaticanus) didn't mark rough breathing, or had it added by a later scribe (according to their respective Wikipedia pages), ...


22

It is because, at least in the later borrowings, Semitic ṭ ט is regularly represented by τ [t], while t ת is represented by θ [th]. It has to do with the fact that the Semitic emphatics are unaspirated, while the plain stops are aspirated. The fricative pronunciation of Greek θ, and of Aramaic/Hebrew post-vocalic t does not emerge until well into the ...


21

Not many. The Romans borrowed plenty of Greek words, but mostly in technical senses; in Antiquity, many Greek words that were used in Latin were also considered a bit fancy and special, for better or worse. There were also some Greek words that were borrowed by the Romans so early in Roman history that they were probably no longer intuitively (or at all) ...


19

There is very little doubt they were pronounced: they are still pronounced in many languages other than English where they were loaned, and crucially in modern Greek; they were also spelled with those clusters when coeval Latin borrowed them. The fact you cannot pronounce them doesn't mean they cannot be pronounced... No offense, but everyone's ...


18

No language is "more simple" than other languages. Old English had just 2 tenses, present and past, now there are 16 of them, future and future-in-the-past forms developed over the time, the continuous aspect appeared, the perfect appeared, so the verbal system acquired much more forms than it used to have. On the other hand, the nouns lost the gender and ...


17

Indeed, the Ancient Greek word εὕρηκα would be transcribed heurēka, with an H. The mark that looks like an apostrophe (the "rough breathing" or "spiritus asper") indicates the H sound. However, the word came to English through Latin, which is why it's pronounced with the accent on the second syllable instead of the first (as in Greek). ...


15

The Greeks had most probably noticed a similarity of their language with Phrygian. Socrates at least did so while speaking to Hermogenes: "Well then, consider whether this pyr is not foreign ; for the word is not easily brought into relation with the Hellenic tongue, and the Phrygians may be observed to have the same word slightly changed, just as they have ...


14

The Aramaic word שבקתני would probably have been pronounced /ʃabaqtani/. Usually, as you note, the /q/ of Aramaic is transliterated as κ, so σαβακθανι /sabaktʰani/ would be expected. However, in Greek, the cluster χθ was pronounced /ktʰ/, so the spelling σαβαχθανι is only an orthographic convention for the same pronunciation /sabaktʰani/ by putting two ...


13

It's true that Greek was spoken in a large area at some time in human history and indeed it's now spoken mainly in Greece in a mostly uniform way. The main reason that there are not many Greek-deriving languages is political. Greek was spoken mostly in the eastern part of Mediterranean sea, Balkans, Anatolia (now Turkey), now Syria, Jordan, Israel, Egypt ...


13

Yes, a few: https://en.wiktionary.org/wiki/Category:Ancient_Greek_terms_derived_from_Sumerian They were mostly borrowed via Akkadian, and into other major classical languages of the Eastern Mediterranean beside Ancient Greek - Aramaic, Armenian, Persian, Hebrew... English cane would seem to share such an etymology. Another wave of ultimately Sumerian ...


13

I'll assume you're a native English speaker. Since English doesn't have these clusters, it's difficult for an English speaker to hear or produce them correctly. But it is not impossible, and there is no reason to think Ancient Greek speakers did not pronounce them. Word initial plosive-plosive clusters are definitely possible since they occur in modern ...


12

It came about like this. (Details about Greek here) When Greeks adopted the Punic abjad into an alphabet, they changed a lot of the letters, and added some new ones. The Punes hadn't needed vowel letters, for instance, due to the nature of the language, but the Greeks did. On the other hand, the Greeks didn't need the post-velar and emphatic consonants of ...


12

dušman and δυσμενής are Indo-European cognates. The Persian word comes from Old Iranian *duš-manyu- (cf Avestan dušmanah-), “whose mind is bad”. The Punjabi word (also Hindi, Urdu etc.) is a borrowing from Persian.


12

Lat. nē 'really, true' and Tocharian B nai 'indeed, surely' seem to be the IE-parallels. The IE demonstrative *(h1e-)no- 'he there, that one' seems to be the root according to Beekes (with a questionmark though) and Babiniotis.


12

Ancient Greek did develop into other languages. It's just that they did not end up as widespread as many of the descendants of Latin did. As happens to many (if not most?) languages, its descendants died out before becoming established. Even today, though, there are descendants of Ancient Greek which diverge from the Demotic/Katharevousa standard: e.g. ...


12

Unfortunately we have no hard evidence one way or another, because Homer uses both, and that's the oldest Greek we have. (Mycenaean inscriptions sometimes help us go farther back, but they're no help here.) However, we can make a very good guess. There's a well-attested Ancient Greek verb lanthánō, "to escape notice"; the extra n comes from a present-tense ...


11

It comes from Latin addico, which means, amongst other things, "to devote", so an addict is someone who is (excessively) devoted to something, from the past participle addictus, "devoted". You can look up the etymology of English words on Etymology Online. Note that the double d could never have come from Greek adikê, nor could the combination -ct.


11

The key is, there was never a digamma in hippos in the first place! (At least, not as far back as we have evidence for: there may have been one earlier than that.) Early Greek, like Latin, had a set of labiovelar consonants. In other words, what the Romans wrote as qu and linguists write as /kʷ/ wasn't treated as a combination of /k/ and /w/ (kappa-digamma):...


11

The problem is that both Greek words are probably not of Indogermanic origin. The case of θάλασσα is pretty clear-cut, the -σσ- cannot be inherited directly from Proto-Indogermanic and must be inherited from a pre-Greek substrate. The case of θάλαμος is less clear, but again a substrate origin is suggested. The nature of the pre-Greek substrate remains ...


10

Many modern European languages are as complex as Latin, Ancient Greek, or Sanskrit. I'd point out Lithuanian but most Slavic languages are typologically similar to the mentioned ancient ones. And yes, native speakers use all constructions their language provides (all languages change, of course, so there are archaic constructions but it has nothing to the ...


10

These two words are actually cognate with each other; they show the differing reflexes in Greek of labiovelar consonants. In the noun ζωή zōē and the corresponding adjective ζωός zōos, the initial ζ developed from a cluster with the semivowel y; the noun βίος bios shows the normal development of PIE *gʷ before the full vowel /i/. The Online Etymology ...


10

The Greek word kalamos “reed, reed pen, stylus” has a good Indo-European etymology (cognate with, for example, German Halm “reed”). It was borrowed not only in Arabic, as qalam, but also into Sanskrit as kalama-. The Tocharian word is presumably borrowed from Sanskrit. The Turkish word is from Arabic.


10

The statement that Greek "doesn't have" gemination is really just a shorter way of saying that gemination is not phonemic in Greek. Phonemic status of a feature in a language is an indication of whether that feature "makes a difference" in that language: so to say that gemination is not phonemic doesn't necessarily mean that gemination doesn't occur, but ...


9

Well this sound change took place at different times in different dialects/regions. Some claim that fricativisation already started in the late 6th/early 5th century BC, but that is controversial (see my reference below). In Laconia there is definite evidence for θ from the 4th century BC where ἀνέσηκε is attested in inscriptions instead of ἀνέθηκε and σιός ...


8

Chantraine, Dictionnaire étymologique de la langue grecque says the etymology is "obscure" and refers to two hypotheses: that it derives from an "expressive syllable" σι-, which I suppose is analogous to English shh that it derives from a conjectural swīg- which is also ancestral to Ger schweigen, "to be mute", and goes back to PIE su̯ī-, -g-, -k-, -p- (...


8

How about აფალინა /apʰalina/? the Black Sea bottlenosed dolphin (Tursiops truncatus ponticus)? It is/used to be common in the Black Sea and has a similar name in (all?) languages bordering on the Black sea: afalina (Turkish), афала (Bulgarian), afalin (Romanian), афаліна (Ukranian), афалина (Russian).


8

As far as I know, we do not have any Greek or Roman texts discussing an eventual genetic relationship between Greek and Latin. There was however a heated discussion about whether language was “by nature” (physei) or “by convention” (literally: “by setting” thesei). You can read all about it in Plato’s “Cratylus”. If language is “by nature”, then it would ...


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