6

The Wiktionary entry for "path" does a terrible job of making this clear, but the reconstructed Germanic form *paþaz is generally thought to be a loanword taken from some other Indo-European language, not a word inherited within Germanic from PIE. In this case, "path" would be indirectly related to "πάτος", but they wouldn't ...


5

Wikipedia's page on lenition seems to suggest that a /t/ -> /θ/ change can actually come from a /t/ -> /tθ/ (affrication) -> /θ/ (spiratization) change. I don't know enough to confirm or deny that this is what Grimm's law describes. I assume if this were true the /tθ/ step would be part of the law.


3

This is a good question but only in the sense that it opens a possibility for rejecting the very premise on which it is based. The short answer is, there are no laws formulated for linguistics that could be analogous to some of the laws of physics that would be constant through time and space. The last attempt at this were the sound change laws in the 19th ...


3

It sounds like this is meant as a puzzle of some sort. So I'll tell you right away—the information you've given isn't sufficient to know where the stress is. Stress in PIE isn't always predictable, so it's usually marked with an acute accent in reconstructions: *népōts. How do we know this? In this case, the Sanskrit word is stressed on the first syllable, ...


3

Kümmel, Martin: Konsonantenwandel, Bausteine zu einer Typologie des Lautwandels und ihre Konsequenzen für die vergleichende Rekonstruktion. Wiesbaden: Reichert 2007. LVI + 482 S. ISBN 987-3-89500-590-9.


3

The consensus is that Grimm's law occurs before Verner's law. You will in the field of Indo-European linguistics always find someone who claims the opposite of what the consensus says. So it's important to know what the consensus is. Here's an argument in favor of the traditional approach: Verner's law turns voiceless fricatives into voiced fricatives. You ...


2

I would really give not an answer but somewhat refusal for the question (despite the question is really good). Currently, the common position is to expand so-called "principle of the arbitrariness of the sign" also to language changes, i.e. you could guess which changes are impossible (for rude example, it's unlikely for any IE language to unify all vowels ...


2

Well, assuming that it went through the way the Grimms and their successors put it -- and not, for instance, the way the Glottalic Theory puts it -- Grimm's Law is a chain shift of three different consonant classes: PIE voiced aspirated stops changed to Germanic plain voiced stops PIE *bher- --> Eng bear PIE voiced stops changed to Germanic voiceless ...


1

Well, by definition, proto-Germanic is the reconstructed ancestor of all attested Germanic languages. Since the Germanic languages are really closely related, and their attestation does not go back very far in time, it is no surprise that proto-Germanic is rather young. Another problem is dating sound laws. AFAIK, there is still an ongoing debate whether ...


1

From memory (from reading some book in the past - i'm not that old) I believe it was borrowed from Scythian after Grimm's law had happened and that it was the Scythian word for their royal roads.


1

There is a compendium of historical correspondences here. It is a convenience sample based on whatever sources the (anonymous) author finds, so for example for Bantu it relies on Harry Johnston's, errm, pioneering work. There isn't any linguistic unit "Proto-British East African", there are gaps (there was no h in Bantu so what does the change "h→Ø/V_V" ...


1

Jon -- you're a bit confused when you say "initial" vs. "terminal". All the Grimm's Law changes happened in all positions (except directly after an obstruent). As others have mentioned, it's impossible to say for sure why a particular change happens, but there are various plausible theories, e.g.: An initial chain shift d -> t, t -> th (aspirated stop) is ...


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