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-3

Anglo-Saxon, a Germanic language spoken by most residents of England, was much changed by the influence of our new Norman overlords after 1066 CE, who spoke a variety of French. The two gender systems were incompatible (e.g. la Lune (fr), das Mond (ger)). So English more or less lost genders, and similarly lost most case endings and verb inflections.


26

The origin of grammatical gender is not necessarily well understood, but presumably it originated like any other inflectional feature and then became associated with gender when it was noticed that some prominent things of one natural gender fell into one paradigm and things of another into another, upon which those paradigms might have been generalised to ...


4

As you already noted, gender or more generally speaking noun class is not a universal linguistic concept. There are a lot of languages in the world with no traces of gender or noun class, not even in the pronouns where English retains the inherited three genders. Note also that a language can have gendered nouns and genderless articles. Arabic is an example ...


2

I gave this a try with my comment: ብርሃን bǝrhan is from በርሀ bärhä "to be bright". This is the source of በራ bärra too. ብሩህ bǝruhǝ is probably related, since it has b and r at the start. برق is either the verb baraqa "to produce lightning" or "to shine, glitter, sparkle, flash", or the noun barq "lightning", and comes ...


2

prevent the emergence of mixed languages? jk makes a great point about the stability of the "mixed languages". However, stability is rarely seen in any established languages either. So called "Standard English" is always evolving, we just had iso and lockdown inducted into the formal lexicon this year, and each evolution of media and ...


9

I wouldn't say that mixed languages are particularly rare, we can observe them in language contact situations all over the world, as pidgins, creoles, and vernaculars of specific ethnic groups. But it is in the nature of most mixed languages that they aren't stable over time. Pidgins become creoles, and creoles often undergo decreolisation becoming a variety ...


1

Probably yes, with a proper definition of "recent". Daniel Nettle argues in his paper Is the rate of linguistic change constant that small speech communities have a higher rate of linguistic change than large ones (and for the purpose of the paper, 50 000 speakers is already large). Thus, there are two different modes in the evolution of language ...


0

How this phenomenon appeared and why and stayed are two different problems. The former cannot be fully answered to sattisfaction I guess. The latter is a matter of inertia. Once it's there and not too much of an obstacle, it will be dragged along. One might argue that it needed an evolutionary advantage to persist, and then wonder why it went lost anyway. It'...


4

The systems employed in Germanic and Slavic result in part from inheritance from Proto-Indo-European, with changes (such as the loss of agreement in Norwegian, massive reduction in English, and the additional of gender in Russian via the past being formed with a nominal construction). We don't know for sure where verb agreement came from in the proto-...


3

Before leaping to conclusions about prehistoric borrowing, you should consider two alternative hypotheses: (1) echoic origin, and (2) coincidental similarity. Arabic lacks an obvious cognate to KRT (כרת), but it has QŢ3 (قطع), QŢM (قطم), and QŢŢ (قطط) all meaning cut. Perhaps KT and QT imitated the sound of chopping, or KRT the sound of sawing. Random ...


6

More theory than history for you, but one take on it: Language evolution is an eternal tug-of-war between ease of articulation and information density. We want to say things quickly and learn how to say them easily, but we also want to be able to communicate with nuance. English is a fairly extreme case. For regular verbs, we have only two forms across all ...


5

"Romance" is based on the historically-known fact that the languages descended from the language of the Romans, who spoke Latin. The classification "Germanic" is also ancient, dating back to Graeco-Roman times: see here for an overview of Germania in the BC and later years. Historical linguistic classification in that era was not ...


-2

bad: çhar - Greek kako Well, sure this one is not Greek, as it came from Iberian (modern basque "txar"). Never forget the Meschoi, one of the principal tribe supposed to have been involved in armenian's ethnogenesis were servants of the Iberians (cf. Procopius). what: zi - Greek ti This one too have to come from iberian (modern basque "zer&...


3

This has been known for a long time (see e.g. Meillet 1894: 299), cf. Kim 2018 "Balto-Slavic also has several examples of velars continuing PIE palatals (“Gutturalwechsel”)." For instance, Otkupshchikov (Откупщиков 1989/2001), in Ряды индоевропейских гуттуральных, discusses what he calls «непоследовательная сатемность» (inconsistent satemization) ...


4

Wiktionary:short #Translations seems to be a good start for answering such questions with regard to modern/living languages. It has no grouping by language families, however.


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