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10 votes

Is "imperatives have invisible subjects" a universal?

An interesting, non-exotic, case is German. In the familiar register you can say “geh nach Hause”, “geht nach Hause”, with implicit subject, but you can also say “geh du nach Hause” and “geht Ihr nach ...
fdb's user avatar
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7 votes
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Is there a language where another verb form is simpler/more basic than the imperative?

Classical Arabic may provide an example: see section 6.1.3 of Brame 1970. His account is that the affirmative imperative is formed by truncating the subject prefix ta- from the 2nd person jussive, and ...
user6726's user avatar
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5 votes

Is "imperatives have invisible subjects" a universal?

There are several exceptions to this rule (etc. Icelandic, Tagalog), see Nikolaeva 2007 for more details. Icelandic Tagalog and Newari Ndyuka That is why Jerry and Kissine write that such strong ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
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5 votes

Is there a language where another verb form is simpler/more basic than the imperative?

For the German language there is a form called Erikativ or Inflektiv which is just the isolated verb stem. It is arguably simpler than the imperative singular because for some strong verbs there is a ...
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
5 votes

Do "imperative" and "declarative" belong to the same or different categories?

The mood applies to the verb in a clause, not to a sentence. English has a barely functional system of "moods", nearly all verbs are used in indicative (even in situations that plainly call ...
James K's user avatar
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4 votes
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Why is there not passive imperative?

This is a fairly common gap for languages to have, though it's not universal. (Ancient Greek, for example, has regular imperatives in the active, middle, and passive voices.) So it's not surprising ...
Draconis's user avatar
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4 votes
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Imperative + pronoun

The German case you cite is separate from the English one. In Germanic languages in general, there never was any third-person imperative. But when German borrowed the T-V distinction from neighboring ...
Draconis's user avatar
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3 votes

Do "imperative" and "declarative" belong to the same or different categories?

The first thing to do is say what "mood" is. Mood is a formal property of verbs forms (formal in the sense "the form of the verb") that signals modality. In other words, "mood&...
user6726's user avatar
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3 votes

Do "imperative" and "declarative" belong to the same or different categories?

"Mood" is a category that's been invented to describe how certain languages work. In some languages, it makes sense to analyze verbs this way. In others, it doesn't. Types of utterances, on ...
Draconis's user avatar
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3 votes

Are there languages where the imperative of "to be" (as in "be happy") is non-existent or achievable through vastly different means?

Thai is somewhat similar to what jick described for Korean in that its adjectives are stative verbs but cannot be used as imperatives, so the phrase "be happy" would be achieved by one of any number ...
Edward Chien's user avatar
2 votes

What languages reinforce imperatives with conjunctions?

The order is really arbitrary or a result of the syntactic constraints of the language. (Generally SAE requires imperatives take the first position whereas even in neighbouring Eastern European IE ...
Adam Bittlingmayer's user avatar
2 votes

Is "imperatives have invisible subjects" a universal?

I think the problems associated with defining "imperative" non-circularly are sufficiently large that they preclude answering the question. It is presumably clear that meaning and usage can't ...
user6726's user avatar
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2 votes

Are there languages where the imperative of "to be" (as in "be happy") is non-existent or achievable through vastly different means?

Korean is unusual in that its "adjectives" (or "stative verbs") behave like full-fledged verbs. (Imagine, instead of "He is happy" or "a happy person", you say ...
jick's user avatar
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2 votes

Is there a language where another verb form is simpler/more basic than the imperative?

Note that, in Latin, the normal imperative is e.g. mitte, where the first person singular is mitto. So at least for some verbs the first person singular is as simple as the imperative. But, generally, ...
Cerberus's user avatar
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1 vote

What languages have a Perfect Imperative and what is the meaning of such a tense-mood combination?

I think you already understand it quite well. The perfect aspect of the perfect imperative emphasizes having something done and over with. It is never strictly necessary, more of an extra resource. ...
Jacob's user avatar
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1 vote
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What languages have a Perfect Imperative and what is the meaning of such a tense-mood combination?

I understand the overall meaning of your question as relations between forms and semantics of imperative and various forms of past tense. In Sanscrit (another ancient language), the Imperative did ...
Manjusri's user avatar
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1 vote

Is there a name or formalism for transforming imperative commands to personalized phrases?

The sentences on the left are known as indirect speech, and the ones on the right are known as direct speech. This is a more general phenomenon; the matrix clause need not be a command (as in your ...
WavesWashSands's user avatar
1 vote

What type of modality is "You must not fear"?

Modals -- and English modals in particular -- have several different varieties of sense. Must has two senses: the Deontic sense, which is social and deals with obligation and limitation of actions ...
jlawler's user avatar
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1 vote
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What type of modality is "You must not fear"?

So the word I was looking for was the hortative modality. This is a set of modalities where the speaker strongly encourages or exhorts someone to do something. Specifically, I think it's either the ...
Lou's user avatar
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