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73 votes
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Is Sanskrit really the mother of all languages?

No, it is not. First and foremost, there are many languages recorded long before the advent of Sanskrit, and many religions recorded long before the advent of Hinduism. The oldest surviving texts in ...
Draconis's user avatar
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31 votes

Is Sanskrit really the mother of all languages?

Sanskrit is not the mother of all languages. Sanskrit is not even the mother of the modern Indo-Aryan languages of the Northern India. Neither it is their father or grandfather. In fact, no language ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
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16 votes

Why was India as the homeland of PIE abandoned?

When a word can be reconstructed to a proto-language, it is generally assumed that there was such a word in the proto-language. Then if the meaning of the word can also be reconstructed, it is ...
user6726's user avatar
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10 votes

Is Sanskrit really the mother of all languages?

Not at all. Sanskrit, Latin and a few other languages had a common ancestor called Proto-Indo-European, which was prevalent around 2500 BC on the southern steppes of Russia. It is a fact that ...
joe's user avatar
  • 363
9 votes

Were Iranian languages originally separated and more related to Slavic?

It has been the standard theory that Balto-Slavic and Indo-Iranian are a significant subgroup in IE, as opposed to Germanic, Celtic, Italic, Hellenic. Then Indic and Iranian are significant ...
user6726's user avatar
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8 votes

What language was spoken in East Asia before Proto-Turkic?

As for the title question, the answer would be "many languages, including proto-Chinese". Focusing on the question in the body, the language spoken by the historical ancestors of proto-Turks, there ...
user6726's user avatar
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7 votes

What is the current understanding of the substrate(s) to the Indo-Aryan languages

It is generally accepted that there is a significant Dravidian substrate in Indo-Aryan, and a smaller number of substrate words from Austroasiatic languages like Munda and Khasi. There is a chapter on ...
fdb's user avatar
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6 votes

Why are there so many 'a' sounds in Sanskrit?

From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Indo-Iranian it has been theorized that *e, *o, and the sometimes reconstructed *a all merged into *a (some exceptions such as Brugmann's law--*o > *ā in open ...
Aryaman's user avatar
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6 votes
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"Phonemic" distinctions induced by morphology

The problem that you're encountering is due to different definitions of "phoneme", a problem which is about as old as the tern "phoneme" itself. Some questions here that center around the definition ...
user6726's user avatar
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6 votes
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Where did the Sanskrit language originate from?

The oldest antecessor of Sanskrit is found in Anatolia (today's Turkey and Northern Iraq) in the Mitanni kingdom. While the language used in correspondence and archives was Hurrian (not obviously ...
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
6 votes
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"h" in Sindhi - ھ vs ہ

Did you say different? My browser renders those "different" examples identically: They are definitely encoded differently, because a search for ه will only highlight one of the two: So ...
madprogramer's user avatar
5 votes
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What happened to Aham and its derivatives in Marathi?

First, some words on the Indogermanic first person singular pronoun: It is suppletive, this means that there are two different stems in it. The nominative is from a different stem than the oblique ...
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
5 votes
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Is Brugmann's Law controversial?

It has always been rather controversial; "long disputed and now refuted", as the famous Dutch Indologist Jan Gonda (Gonda 1971) sarcastically noted (cited as in Collinge 1985: 16). It seems though it ...
Alex B.'s user avatar
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4 votes
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Are ~simba (Bantu) and ~simha (Indic) related?

That is a coincidence, the two words are not related, neither are the Indo-European and Bantu languages. The Swahili simba 'lion' comes from the Proto-Bantu *ǹcímbá 'any of various wild felines or ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
  • 18.5k
4 votes

Is Brugmann's Law controversial?

In my professional field (Indo-Iranian studies) Brugmann's law is universally accepted as a basic sound law. The exceptions (all laws have exceptions) can mostly be explained by paradigmatic leveling. ...
fdb's user avatar
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4 votes

Do we have ablaut in the Bengali verb system?

If we take ablaut to mean the Indo-European ablaut, we do not see it in the Bengali verb system. Instead, they can be seen in derivational patterns in loanwords from Sanskrit, e.g. বিজ্ঞান /biggæn/ "...
Michaelyus's user avatar
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4 votes
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How do Agglutinative Features/Languages develop out of Fusional Features/Languages?

The terminology gets in the way a bit, because agglutinative, analytic, fusional etc. are not really crisp and well-defined states for languages to be in, rather, the re is a continuum from 1-to-1 ...
user6726's user avatar
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4 votes
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How do we know that Mitanni Indo-Aryan loan words are derived from Proto-Indo-Aryan and not Vedic Sanskrit?

Because there are certain sound changes that happened between Proto-Indo-Iranian* and Vedic, and we don't see those sound changes in the Mitanni texts. For example, the second half of the name Bi-ir-...
Draconis's user avatar
  • 66.7k
4 votes

Why the contribution of Iranic languages is being ignored?

It’s called Indo-European because when it was first discovered that Indic and Iranian languages were related to European ones, the name coined for the newly-discovered family was based on its ...
Janus Bahs Jacquet's user avatar
3 votes

Is the Turkish word for brother(kardeş) of Indo-Iranian origin?

Old Turkish (from 8th century on) has kadaş and ka kadaş in the meaning “kinsman”. Anatolian Turkish kardeş results from a folk-etymological reinterpretation of the old word, as if from karın "...
fdb's user avatar
  • 24.2k
3 votes

Ancestors of modern Indo-Aryan languages

The Prakrits are historically attested languages, whereas particular extant modern languages do not necessarily descend from an attested Prakrit in the way that Modern English descends from Old ...
user6726's user avatar
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3 votes

Is there any similar verb negation in other Indo-European languages?

Basically what you are saying is that for this one verb the negative form changes the vowel of the prefix from /ɜ/ to /æ/. Is that right? These correspond to classical Persian bi-tawānad بتواند ...
fdb's user avatar
  • 24.2k
2 votes

Are ~simba (Bantu) and ~simha (Indic) related?

Indic languages are not related to the Bantu languages genetically; however, both Hindi/Urdu and Swahili were influenced by Arabic due to contact between speakers. Neither of these words arose through ...
DeLissaplitz Anonymous's user avatar
2 votes

Are Indian languages distinct or are they just different dialects?

The apt technical term for formerly different languages developing common features is sprachbund. And yes, there is a Sprachbund on the Indic subcontinent.
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
2 votes
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What are the Middle Indo Aryan pleonastic suffixes and what are their Sanskrit/OIA cognates?

A pleonastic suffix is one which is redundant in that the basic meaning of the word is exactly the same but the extension has a certain effect that could be emphatic, poetic, or diminutive. It is ...
earlyinthemorning's user avatar
1 vote

Why grammaticalized perfective aspect marker is reduced to be used only in narrative style?

Some languages have a special tense used only or mostly for telling stories, like the Turkish -mış/-miş/-muş/-müş Reported a.k.a. Inferential Past tense (they say ...). Perhaps it's such kind of tense ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
  • 18.5k
1 vote

Popular book(s) recommendation for start learning Linguistics keeping an interest in the Indus Valley script in mind

The previous recommendation of Catford is very good, but it's important for you to understand that the Indus Valley "Script" may not be a script at all but rather a set of markings, seal-...
ltq's user avatar
  • 11

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