69

No, it is not. First and foremost, there are many languages recorded long before the advent of Sanskrit, and many religions recorded long before the advent of Hinduism. The oldest surviving texts in Ancient Egyptian are from c. 3000 BCE, while the majority of the Rigveda (the oldest known Sanskrit text) was probably composed between 1500 and 1200 BCE. So ...


27

Sanskrit is not the mother of all languages. Sanskrit is not even the mother of the modern Indo-Aryan languages of the Northern India. Neither it is their father or grandfather. In fact, no language is a direct descendant of Sanskrit. Saying that Sanskrit to the modern Indo-Aryan languages is the same as Latin to the modern Romance languages is absolutely ...


21

There are hundreds of distinct languages in India, from two main families, Dravidian and Indo-European. Malayalam is Dravidian and Hindi is Indo-European, so they are not only different languages but unrelated ones. All the major languages of India have borrowed extensively from Sanskrit, hence the lexical similarities you mention; but this doesn't make them ...


10

Not at all. Sanskrit, Latin and a few other languages had a common ancestor called Proto-Indo-European, which was prevalent around 2500 BC on the southern steppes of Russia. It is a fact that Sanskrit has enriched most Indian Languages including the Dravidian Languages such as Telugu as Latin enriched some languages like English Yes, this is true. ...


8

As for the title question, the answer would be "many languages, including proto-Chinese". Focusing on the question in the body, the language spoken by the historical ancestors of proto-Turks, there are two main options. One is that they spoke "pre-proto-Turkic", that is, an undocumented language whose properties are not presently recoverable. As for the name ...


7

It is generally accepted that there is a significant Dravidian substrate in Indo-Aryan, and a smaller number of substrate words from Austroasiatic languages like Munda and Khasi. There is a chapter on “Loanwords in Sanskrit” in Burrow’s famous book “The Sanskrit Language”, which you should be able to find in a good library.


6

From Proto-Indo-European to Proto-Indo-Iranian it has been theorized that *e, *o, and the sometimes reconstructed *a all merged into *a (some exceptions such as Brugmann's law--*o > *ā in open syllables--apply). This probably happened sometime around the 3rd millennium BCE when the Indo-Europeans began to split up, with the Indo-Iranians moving towards the ...


6

The oldest antecessor of Sanskrit is found in Anatolia (today's Turkey and Northern Iraq) in the Mitanni kingdom. While the language used in correspondence and archives was Hurrian (not obviously related to Indo-Aryan), personal names of the Mitanni ruling class, the names of gods and godesses, and some terminology around horses are considered the oldest ...


6

Did you say different? My browser renders those "different" examples identically: They are definitely encoded differently, because a search for ه will only highlight one of the two: So what's going on? Arabic and related scripts type characters differently depending on their position in a word. Let's just consider the plain ﻩ (h) for a moment: ...


5

I wouldn't hundred percent subscribe to Tamil (refering here to classical Tamil Sangam poetry) being mora-timed. The counting of morae (from the first grammar Tolkāppiyam onwards) is somewhat confusing. E.g. there is of course one mora allotted to a short syllable and two morae to a long one, but moreover there is half a mora for overshort u and i and even a ...


5

It may moreover be noted that Malayalam could be considered a dialect of Tamil up to somewhere between the 8th and 11th centuries. From then onwards it went its own way and was heavily - and by far more than Tamil - influenced by Sanskrit, which may be seen by the mere fact, that the Malayalam script incorporates many non-dravidian Sanskrit sounds. Whereas ...


5

The problem that you're encountering is due to different definitions of "phoneme", a problem which is about as old as the tern "phoneme" itself. Some questions here that center around the definition of phoneme are this, this, this, and most recently this. Formal views of the phoneme can be broadly classified as "data-oriented" versus "derivation-oriented". ...


5

It has always been rather controversial; "long disputed and now refuted", as the famous Dutch Indologist Jan Gonda (Gonda 1971) sarcastically noted (cited as in Collinge 1985: 16). It seems though it is much less controversial now, at least among IE linguists. But the jury is still out. Kurylowicz, Meillet, and Szemerenyi rejected it (not a bad company?). ...


4

If we take ablaut to mean the Indo-European ablaut, we do not see it in the Bengali verb system. Instead, they can be seen in derivational patterns in loanwords from Sanskrit, e.g. বিজ্ঞান /biggæn/ "science", but বৈজ্ঞানিক /boiggænik/ "scientific", where i has become the diphthong oi. But Bengali does have vowel alternations, e.g. the infinitive কেনা /kena/ ...


4

In my professional field (Indo-Iranian studies) Brugmann's law is universally accepted as a basic sound law. The exceptions (all laws have exceptions) can mostly be explained by paradigmatic leveling. See for example: Hoffmann/Forssman, Avestische Laut- und Flexionslehre, p. 61. Who wrote the wikipedia article?


4

Because there are certain sound changes that happened between Proto-Indo-Iranian* and Vedic, and we don't see those sound changes in the Mitanni texts. For example, the second half of the name Bi-ir-ya-ma-aš-da is almost certainly from the Indo-Iranian word for "wisdom", *mazdháH. (Compare Avestan mazdā, as in Ahuramazda "lord of wisdom". ...


4

The terminology gets in the way a bit, because agglutinative, analytic, fusional etc. are not really crisp and well-defined states for languages to be in, rather, the re is a continuum from 1-to-1 form/function correspondence to many-to-many relations, and a continuum of using morphological vs. syntactic means of expressing things. There is a tendency for ...


3

Old Turkish (from 8th century on) has kadaş and ka kadaş in the meaning “kinsman”. Anatolian Turkish kardeş results from a folk-etymological reinterpretation of the old word, as if from karın "womb" + daş "sharer". Clauson in his "Etymological Dictionary of pre-13th-century Turkish" argues that ka is a loan from Middle Chinese, ...


3

Broadly speaking, there is a linguistic continuum across Northern India. This means that there are no hard borders between Sindhi, Panjabi, Gujarati, Marathi, Hindi, Bengali, Oriya; instead there is a gradual transition from dialects of one to dialects of another. The Dravidian, Munda and Khasi languages do not participate in this continuum, nor does ...


3

As a rule, the voiceless aspirates are a dialectal feature. In most languages, they cannot be distinguished from plain voiceless. As regards *kh, the typical pattern is Old Indian kh, Armenian x, Greek k(h). For example, in a potentially onomatopeic verb: *kakh- "to laugh", where probably no laryngeal is involved. As regards *th, typically Old Indian th, ...


3

Basically what you are saying is that for this one verb the negative form changes the vowel of the prefix from /ɜ/ to /æ/. Is that right? These correspond to classical Persian bi-tawānad بتواند and na-bi-tawānad نبتواند respectively. I am not familiar with this construction in any other language.


2

It seems to me that you're answering your own question. The sound change is not "spontaneous". What you describe is a chain: geminated aCCa > prenasalized anCa > nasalized long vowel ã:Ca. Exchanges of geminated vs prenasalized consonants also occur in Semitic: manṣaru = maṣṣaru "guard, keeper", but there it does not lead to nasalized vowels.


2

Indic languages are not related to the Bantu languages genetically; however, both Hindi/Urdu and Swahili were influenced by Arabic due to contact between speakers. Neither of these words arose through mutual loans from Arabic, though; 'lion' in Arabic is 'أسد,' or ' 'asada.'


2

That is a coincidence, the two words are not related, neither are the Indo-European and Bantu languages. The Swahili simba 'lion' comes from the Proto-Bantu *ǹcímbá 'any of various wild felines or similar, including wildcat, lion, leopard, civet, genet'.


2

The apt technical term for formerly different languages developing common features is sprachbund. And yes, there is a Sprachbund on the Indic subcontinent.


1

Some languages have a special tense used only or mostly for telling stories, like the Turkish -mış/-miş/-muş/-müş Reported a.k.a. Inferential Past tense (they say ...). Perhaps it's such kind of tense that is arising in the minor Indo Aryan language you are looking at. When a language has two (or more) means to express the same grammatical feature, that ...


1

The previous recommendation of Catford is very good, but it's important for you to understand that the Indus Valley "Script" may not be a script at all but rather a set of markings, seal-emblems, or decorative motifs. The series of articles by Witzel, Sproat and Farmer are extremely instructive - some of them use statistical techniques that may ...


1

Your presuppositions are faulty. Sanskrit kṛtaka is exactly what it is: a past passive participle from kṛ 'to do', followed by the adjectival suffix -ka. As such, it means 'the one who has been done'. Then, depending on the context, you can translate it in a number of ways, including a simple 'done', but this does not make it an "expanded variation of kṛta". ...


1

The Mitanni texts are in Hurrian, a non-Indo-European and non-Semitic language. As you mentioned, they contain some loanwords and proper names taken from proto-Indo-Aryan. This form of Hurrian is written in an Akkadian-based cuneiform script, so it is likely that the scribes also used Akkadian for certain types of documents. By the way, "official papers" is ...


1

I think, the answer is yet: We don't know. The capital cities of Mitanni aren't localised nor excavated. The accounts of Mitanni come from the Hurritic city of Nuzi and from external relationships.


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