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16

As you noticed, there is something common between modern Romance and Germanic languages which is not shared by other Indo-European languages. It does not come from their ancestral languages (Latin and Proto-Germanic), but to the fact that they are part of a sprachbund, called Standard Average European (SAE). Many characteristics of SAE are obviously absent ...


10

Even if these languages belong to the Indo-European family, there's a huge gap of time and space standing between Pre-Italic and Pre-Germanic languages. "A probable cladistic tree of the IE family"(a) shows e.g. that the Italo-Celtic subfamily and the "Central IE" subfamily (including Germanic) diverges long before Germanic and Indo-Iranian diverged. "...


9

The best answer is: There is no consensus about this. In the big tree of Indogermanic languages there are only two intermediate groupings that are generally accepted: Indo-Iranian and Balto-Slavic. The support of Italo-Celtic became weaker with the discovery of Tocharian: Some of the common features of Italo-Celtic also occur there and are now considered ...


6

One theory that has occurred to me: In Latin, and perhaps all Italic, the morphological category that * woid- originally represented became the simple preterite, and this change may have leveled out any independent, lexicalized meanings of the perfective stems. Thus, the perfect of videre (vīdī/vīdistī/etc.) simply means “saw / have seen” in the same way ...


4

The languages were probably very close and most likely mutually intelligible at least to some degree, which is why we postulate the Italo-Celtic branch of IE languages. Of course neither of these language states are attested but what we reconstruct shows many similarities. Compare the declensions as listed by Wiki: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Proto-...


3

Looking at a few related wikipedia pages: Italic peoples: Origins According to David W. Anthony, between 3100–2800/–2600 BCE, a real folk migration of Proto-Indo-European speakers from the Yamna culture took place into the Danube Valley. These migrations probably split off Pre-Italic, Pre-Celtic and Pre-Germanic from Proto-Indo-European.1 ...


3

First of all: is it correct that the “know” meaning of *weid- is fully absent from attested Italic? As far as I know, yes. Its Latin cognate, vīdī, means "I have seen" without the lexicalized metaphor of Greek οὶδα, and I've never seen it used differently in other Italic languages. Latin does have a similar perfective usage—the perfect nōvī < ...


2

Umbrian & Faliscan are both attested and distinct as far back as the 7th century BCE (i.e. the 600s BCE), so this gives us a terminus ante quem (a latest possible date) PIE is generally accepted to have broken up somewhere around 4500-5000 years ago or 2500-3000 BCE (see the dates given in ukemi's answer) giving us a terminus post quem (an earliest ...


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