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2

I would count Pinyin as romanization or transliteration, which is a distinct concept to furigana and ruby. The equivalent to Pinyin is Romaji. I count furigana, and especially ruby to be the kana written in a small font above the normal sized kanji. You never see this in Chinese though it would be possible. In Taiwan when Zhuyin Fuhao is used I've never seen ...


2

There is no real linguistic definition of a “pronoun”. Grammatically, however, words that are often called “pronouns” in Japanese behave in an identical distribution to any other normal noun. But, there are a couple of words in Japanese, specifically those whose nominal form ends on /-re/, such as /sore/, /ware/, /kare/, which distribute slightly differently ...


3

For what it's worth, I think all comments made here to the effect that the Korean spelling of カタカナ as 가타카나 is due to VOT in either language are not correct or at least insufficient for modern speakers of Korean (it might have been different in the past). The indication for this is that not only does the Korean Wikipedia page for Tokyo say 도쿄도(일본어: 東京都 발음: '...


5

jogloran's answer is a good explanation on why it's possible to transcribe word-initial /k/, /t/ to Korean ㄱ and ㄷ. As for why it had to be that way, there's no logical answer - IMHO the other way (always transcribing /k/ to ㅋ, for example) makes just as much sense, but when the rule was decided, apparently the scholars liked the current scheme better. If ...


10

As you may know, "single" stops in Korean are weakly aspirated in initial position only (audio example), so Japanese stops in the unvoiced series (such as た) correspond to Korean "single" stops (e.g. ㄷ) in initial position. They are not perceived as ㅌ because the aspirated series in initial position in Korean is much more strongly ...


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