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5 votes

How many marked cases are there for regular nouns in English?

Depending how you count, pronouns have either three or four cases (they, them, their, theirs; some people consider "their" and "theirs" the same case). Normal nouns have only one. ...
Draconis's user avatar
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5 votes

Is there any language where the past tense is the base form of a verb?

First, it is important to be clear on what "most basic form" as described above covers. One notion is "structurally simplest", that is, "having the fewest added things". The other is "phonologically ...
user6726's user avatar
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4 votes

How can a syllable be marked?

This originates in linguistics with Trubetzkoy, who spoke of distinctive "marks" (in the sense of "indication"). -s is a "mark" of plurality, also d has a "mark" of voicing. You may be interested in ...
user6726's user avatar
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2 votes

Is there any language where the past tense is the base form of a verb?

Probably this confusion is familiar within Indo-European linguistics. If we use the concept 'root' instead of 'base' we will understand this issue more accurately. In Indo-European languages, as far ...
Tsutsu's user avatar
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2 votes

Head-marked possessive with gender agreement

Oneida seems to attach different possessive prefixes to the head noun based on the gender of the possessor. The following forms are found in a portion of the table "Possessive prefixes" on ...
brass tacks's user avatar
1 vote

Is there any language where the past tense is the base form of a verb?

You could say that in Proto-indoeuropean this might have been the case and there are indications of this in some later languages like Ancient Greek, however this is definitely debatable given the ...
Eleshar's user avatar
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1 vote

Marking subject/object that is not a pronoun?

Note: I don't know any Coptic. -rep- and -p- both share the element [p]. Coptic is supposed to have have a prefixed definite article with the consonant [p] for masculine nouns. This suggests to me ...
brass tacks's user avatar

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