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7

Max P's answer is correct. Just to add this: there are two etymologically unconnected English words "mood". "Mood" in the sense "state of mind" is an inherited Germanic word. The grammatical term "mood" is (originally) a variant spelling for "mode", from Latin "modus".


6

First things first: The concept of "grammatical mood", like the concept of "word", is one of those things that works great within a language (as a tool to make a particular theory/explanation more elegant) but kind of breaks down when applied cross-linguistically. For example, some languages have tense, aspect, and mood being orthogonal ...


6

For most Romance languages at least, there's a totally separate set of conjugation forms called the "subjunctive mode", used to indicate things that could/should/might be, could/should/might become, or that somebody wishes they did as opposed to the "indicative mode" which usually indicates stuff the way it is. Usually, subjunctive present has nothing to do ...


5

I suspect subjunctive merged with indicative in English simply due to phonetical reasons. Look at Old English: "I ate" (indicative) - Ic æt "I ate" (subjunctive) - Ic æte or "we beat" (indicative) - bēoton "we beat" (subjunctive) - bēoten (according to wiktionary) Then vowel reduction happened, and unstressed vowels in affixes all turned ...


5

It is all very simple, there is a marvellous Esperanto middle voice derivational suffix -iĝ- which makes every root passive (at least from the point of view of an English speaker). Followed by the infinitive suffix -i (-iĝi) it forms passive infinitives: fari - "to do/make" fariĝi - "to be done/made" Note, that making passives with this suffix lies ...


4

Any Esperanto adjectival root can be turned into a verb of state by simply adding the verbal endings. This gives rise to another class of passive infinitives derived from passive participles: Passive Participle Derived Infinitive Meaning ------------------ ------------------ ------- farita fariti to have been done ...


4

A bit of Googling turned up references to "conditional participles" in Bengali: Bengali By Hanne-Ruth Thompson and Oriya: Oriya Grammar for English Students by Ebenezer Charles Bethlehem Hallam This page on Kyrgyz morphology refers to something it calls an "irrealis participle", which might be what you're looking for, but it doesn't describe its usage.


4

First, a bit of background: "mood" in this sense is borrowed from *modus*, the Latin word used in certain ancient grammars. But then *modus* was also borrowed as "mode" via French, and now the two are used interchangeably. There's no relation to "mood" as in emotion, which comes from Germanic. You'd think the scientists studying language would be some of the ...


4

If you would like a "popular" account of mood versus modality, you could compare the Wiki entries for Linguistics Modality versus Grammatical Mood. These pages indicate that "modality" is a semantic and logical fact related to possible worlds etc. and "grammatical mood (sometimes mode) is a grammatical (usually morphologically marked) feature of verbs, used ...


3

No, the use of auxiliaries is not directly linked to aspect, mood or tense in the first place. This may be so in some or many cases by coincidence when morphological or syntactic marking is not available, but the link between auxiliary verbs and TAM is not a logical necessity. On the one hand, there are (even in English) cases where the use of auxiliaries ...


3

No, auxiliary verbs don't always express something other than simple indicative. Yes, there are cases where a sentence with an auxiliary verb is in the simple indicative. For instance, "Hal is a fisherman." The "is" is an auxiliary verb, since it inverts with the subject in the corresponding yes-no question "Is Hal a fisherman?", and it is a simple ...


2

At least in my dialect of Spanish (Rioplatense) sometimes the imperfect past tense is used instead of both the subjunctive and the potential in conditional sentences (as exemplified below). This is colloquial and I'm sure many people would view it as ungrammatical, but is used often enough. Si sabía no te decía. Literally: "If I knew, I didn't tell you" (...


2

If I could address the Semitic part of your question: the Arabic past tense (al-māḍī; please note that this word actually does mean “past”) is used in principal clauses for actions in the past time, but is also used with the particle “law” in unreal conditions. So at least in your first two sentences you would say “law kuntu” and “law kunta”. So this is not ...


2

Mood is most frequently used to refer to a morphological system (or a syntactic one). The Mood system will mark modality, but it also often marks other semantic categories as well, such as illocutionary force (i.e. interrogative, imperative). This is the same as how languages frequently mix tense and aspect together in their morphology. Or often languages ...


2

German marks mood by umlaut, e. g. ich mag (indicative) > ich möge (subjunctive II) ich sehe (>preterite: sah) > ich sähe ich liege (> ich lag) > ich läge ich trage (> ich trug) > ich trüge, etc. (a + j > ä /ɛ/, u + j > ü /y/,...) This inflection is based on i-umlaut motivates different morphophonological developments. In older German the non-real ...


2

Yes or no, depending on what exactly you are looking for. In most Bantu languages, tense etc. inflection for verbs involves adding certain tones. Verb inflection in Bantu covers all sorts of things, including mood, and there are indeed tonal markings that indicate subjunctive and imperative. This is frequently realized as a particular tone pattern on the ...


2

In some Bantu languages, it is used to indicate "almost doing", which isn't a subjunctive use I know of in Romance (maybe I just don't know about it). Part of the problem is that there isn't an independent, robust test for whether something is a "subjunctive". I suspect that if a verb form were used for realis moods, it would not be labeled "subjunctive". So ...


2

Every time a language "decides" that it should be simpler to have discrete words to express ideas, somebody (the speakers) comes along and messes up the system, by creating idiosyncratic meanings ("kick the bucket", "look up the answer", "give X a break"), and by smashing stuff together into one word (who says "will not" anymore?). Languages are very short-...


1

A German counter-example is Er wird geschlagen where the auxilliary werden expresses the passive voice, but is clearly simple-indicative-present.


1

This seems to be an extension of the so-called modal preterite (CGEL's term -- see StoneyB's comment on Pascal-Denis Lussier's answer), in which English constructions with irrealis semantics can take formally past-tense verbs even though there is no actual past-tense reference. Examples: I wish I was on a bus right now! It's time you came home. I'd rather ...


1

In attempting to answer this question I think it's useful to distinguish between the terms 'mood' and 'modality': 'Modality' is the category of semantic notions relating to a speakers expression of possibility, necessity, desirability, etc. 'Mood' refers to the grammatical devices used to signal a particular 'modality'. Every language has a lexicon along ...


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