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44

English does have that verb which is etymologically related to the Swedish heter, Icelandic heiti, German heißen, etc. In English it is to hight, only it is archaic, still sometimes it is used nowadays, mostly in poetry, for example in the 1943 poem I hight Don Quixote, I live on peyote by John Whiteside “Jack” Parsons, or in the name of the modern punk rock ...


25

The first thing I thought of was names derived in antiquity from the names of ancient Greek goddesses. For example, the French male name Hercule is ultimately from the name of the Greek goddess Hera (Ἥρα) (it's not just a masculinized form of the name, though, obviously). The name Artemio seems to be used in Italian and Spanish; I believe it comes from the ...


23

It is because, at least in the later borrowings, Semitic ṭ ט is regularly represented by τ [t], while t ת is represented by θ [th]. It has to do with the fact that the Semitic emphatics are unaspirated, while the plain stops are aspirated. The fricative pronunciation of Greek θ, and of Aramaic/Hebrew post-vocalic t does not emerge until well into the ...


13

From my understanding of the other answers, I think English does have this idiom. Only, instead of a "word", in English "nothing at all" is used (or if you're a programmer, the empty string). The Swedish phrase: Jag heter XX is translatable to English as: I am called XX But this is uncommon in spoken English. Instead of directly translating "heter" to "...


13

The answer to the question about modern practice is 'convention'. In general awareness Native American names have the form of 'Epithet Object/Animal' such as 'Red Cloud' or 'Crazy Horse'. Therefore you will see activities like children picking 'Native American Names' in this format. This is puzzling (or possibly even traumatising) to actual Native American ...


13

Proper names are nouns, albeit with specific characteristics, so they play the roles other nouns play in syntax (subject, object, etc). They also partake in morphology; if a language has genders, it will distinguish between Cláudio and Cláudia just like it distinguishes between gato and gata; if a language has cases, it will have Cladius and Claudii. The ...


12

Vietnamese names, like Chinese, have no specific name set. So the choice depends on the parents or the person who gives the name. They can choose any syllable they like to combine into the name. But of course there's a set of words that are much more commonly appear in names because they are "more beautiful" words. However Vietnamese name have no limit in ...


12

In Italian there are a number of historically female names which are occasionally used as male names, e.g. Celeste, Amabile, Fiore, Diamante In many Romance languages the female name Maria (or some variant thereof) has historically been used in male names, either standalone or as part of a compound name, though this practice has generally declined with ...


10

I think, the names in the other languages like Greek or Arabic that have their meaning in those languages are standardized, for example 'Abdullah' meaning 'God's Servant' was and is given to millions of people, while the Native American names are unique and individual, they are given to just one person each.


9

English does have a word for it, it's called. e.g. Swedish: Jag heter Danny English: I'm called Danny Although I'm Danny, or My name's Danny sounds less 'weird' to me.


9

As others stated, on monumental inscriptions, the name of Julius Caesar would look similar to IVLIVS CAESAR However, saying it was "spelled with an I instead of a J" may be misleading, because 'J' as a later innovation did not arise from thin air: while 'I' and 'J' were not distinguished in Roman times, they existed as graphically distinct variants of ...


9

This comes down to the ambiguities in the Cuneiform script. Cuneiform doesn't have a one-to-one correspondence between signs and sounds. The sign DIŊIR is a good example. The sign started out in Sumerian meaning an, "heaven". It was used for both the sounds /an/ and for the word an. Because it was pronounced /an/, it started being used for the word An also, ...


9

The throne name (praenomen) has the following four hieroglyphs, listed by Gardiner number as: 𓎟 V30 (basket) 𓏥 Z2 (three strokes) 𓆣 L1 (dung beetle) 𓇳 N5 (sun) I think the issue you are having is with Z2, the plural strokes for the plural. However, Z2 is classified as a determinative, indicating plurality. Because it was often paired ...


9

This may sound weird, but it's not. Well, in fact, it is very weird indeed. –– With equal right one might say that Romania should correctly be called Wales. –– If that joke is lost on you, read the rest of this answer: there is nothing incorrect to observe. There is just a lot of culture and language evolution over quite a few centuries and thus a no ...


8

Long Indian names are indeed shortened for informal/semi formal usage in India too. It is typically shortened to the first two syllables. For example Venkataraghavan usually becomes Venkat and in the example you used Raj for Rajendra. Male names which are thus shortened could be used for semi-formal usage too. Female names are shortened to form nicknames ...


7

The currently favoured theory (e.g. in Beekes, with references) is that *Ἀγαμέμνων, variants –μέσμων and –μέμμων, is from * Ἀγα-μέδ-μων, from μέδομαι “to be concerned with”, and not from μένω (which would not really account for the second μ). Of course, in etymology everything is a hypothesis.


7

You are absolutely right, the change N > M is due to the influence of Michael. That happened not only in Polish, but also in Ukrainian: Микола, Миколай (Mykola, Mykolaj) Belarusian: Мікалай (Mikalaj) Czech and Slovak: Mikuláš Upper Sorbian: Mikławš Lower Sorbian: Miklawš Slovenian: Miklavž. UPD: Best wishes on Saint Nicholas' Day, which is celebrated ...


6

Just so you know, Camille is a gender-neutral name. It's French, and actually it's the most famous gender-neutral name in France. Nowadays, about 70% of Camille are females. However, during the 19th century it was the contrary: you had more guys named Camille than girls. So famous painters, writers, fictional characters from this period are mainly guys.


6

Your precise question was whether there was a Greek or Latin name spelt “Jesus” or similarly before the advent of Christianity. The answer is yes. The Hebrew name Yəhošuăʻ (Joshua) is spelt Ἰησοῦς in the Septuagint (the pre-Christian Jewish translation of the Old Testament).


6

This is an interesting question. As always with transliteration, there are compromises. Why do Azeris still transcribe their names if both the forms are written in Latin? I am aware that they used Cyrillic before and they switched to Latin. Firstly we should note that there are other languages written in the Latin script for which compromises are made by ...


6

The names for a given language can be divided into exonyms and endonyms. Exonyms are the names given to the language (sometimes by extension, from the name given to the people who speak it) by foreigners and/or people who speak other languages. Endonyms are the names given to the language by the people who speak it. Exonyms can be simple adaptations of the ...


5

Tibetan and Bhutanese names are genderless. I'm not a native of those countries, but travelled to both, and found the same names used for both men and women. I've had it confirmed as much as well that the names there do not confer gender, ie they're used interchangeably between genders. Worth doing some more investigation to be sure. Cheers.


5

Onomastics¹ has a big overlap with linguistics, specially with historical linguistics (derivation and meaning of names, sound shifts, etc.). Some valuable historical linguistic information is only available by the study of proper names (several languages are otherwise completely undocumented). It is traditionally seen as a branch of linguistics. However, ...


5

There are a few examples from Germanic names: Deolindo or Teolindo are derived from Deolinda/Teolinda (modern German cognate: Dietlind).


5

Derivation and inflection are different processes. Several proper nouns in Romance languages inflect for gender; in French, such inflection may be easily mistaken for a derivation, because the masculine gender usually takes a 0-desinence, while the feminine form takes an -e: Jean - Jeanne, Dominic - Dominique. But in other Romance languages, the difference ...


5

"Proto-X" tends to be used for the last common ancestor of X—the point at which the X languages started to diverge and become their own entities. This is why you'll sometimes hear about "pre-Proto-Indo-European": PIE is the last common ancestor of the Indo-European languages, and "pre-PIE" is what might have come before it. (It mostly comes up in discussions ...


4

“Armenian” is հայերեն for which the usual transliteration is hayeren. ր is a single-tap /r/, as opposed to the trilled ռ, transliterated as ṙ.


4

There's nothing special about them, AFAIK. A huge number of personal names, everywhere, are like that. For example, George (earth-worker) , Alfred (Elf-council), etc. look just as descriptive. Most names are either formed like this, or express some devotional idea. The names you mentioned sound odd to us because their community chose to translate the names ...


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