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10 votes
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How did OE æ / ǣ tranform into ME ō?

It wasn’t a regular sound change. The vowel in stole was influenced by analogy with other strong past forms like drove and the past participle stolen. By sound laws, Old English æ gives Middle English ...
brass tacks's user avatar
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6 votes
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How did English end up with a voiced "z" at the end of words?

Yes, it exists in other Indo-European languages. For example, in the French word française. It also exists in some other Romance languages like Romanian, in Serbo-Croatian and Ukrainian, in Armenian ...
Adam Bittlingmayer's user avatar
2 votes
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Why does old english niman from PGmc *nemaną, have "i"?

In late Proto-Germanic, there was a sound change that changed *e to *i before a following nasal consonant in tautosyllabic coda position: *ben.da.ną became *bin.da.ną because the first *n was in coda ...
Janus Bahs Jacquet's user avatar

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