9

There is no real way to predict the perfect stem or the supine stem (past-participle stem) of a Latin verb; there are only probabilities. One normally learns the past stems of a verb along with its present stem and conjugation group if they are irregular. The regular suffix to form the perfect stem is by adding -v- to the present stem, so after the theme ...


6

Your observation is correct and you're not missing anything. The original case information is simply lost with -DIK (and -(y)EcEK) participles. So is most of the original tense information by the way: -DIK is for relative non-future and -(y)EcEK is for relative future but finer distinctions are lost. If context is not enough to recover the lost information ...


4

A bit of Googling turned up references to "conditional participles" in Bengali: Bengali By Hanne-Ruth Thompson and Oriya: Oriya Grammar for English Students by Ebenezer Charles Bethlehem Hallam This page on Kyrgyz morphology refers to something it calls an "irrealis participle", which might be what you're looking for, but it doesn't describe its usage.


4

The paper Fue muerto: Suppletion in Spanish Analytic Passives (p.96-112) analyses this very question. The authors come to the conclusion that it is indeed suppletion: We claim that there are three areas that provide more solid evidence for treating mat- and mor- as competing members of a list accessed by the same numeric index. The first is that past ...


3

After Embick (2004), you could take a look at this paper by Alexiadou & Anagnostopoulou, whose title is "Structuring participles", downloadable at www.lingref.com/cpp/wccfl/26/paper1653.pdf After that, you could procede to take a look at the chapter 5 on adjectival passives, included in his recent (2015) monograph on External Arguments in Transitivity ...


2

So are there some languages that do not use verbs directly to form nouns, adjectives, or adverbs by means of transforming the verb into an infinitive, participle, gerund, or similar such aspect of speech … ? I think isolating languages like Mandarin might fit this bill. Mandarin lacks extensive verbal morphology, such that a verb's function is more often ...


2

That's correct as stated in other answers. If you need to keep the tense information you can use a different structure: Gezdirmiş olduğum köpek uyuyor. Gitmiş olduğum köy güzel. These sentences carry the past tense information.


2

Van der Merve, Naudé and Kroeze (A Biblical Hebrew Reference Grammar) say (s. 18.8) that "Instead of the Piel, Pual and Hithpael stem formations, the II waw and II yod verbs have a Polel, Polal and Hithpolel stem formation, respectively. It is clear from the names of these stem formations that the final stem consonant is repeated. The conjugation of verbs in ...


2

Tons of research has been written on the problem of distinguishing between verbal passives and adjectival passives, e.g. "The vase was broken." The following is a summary of Ward, Birner and Huddleston 2002. They mention a number of tests for English - try to see if they work in German. It can be considered an adjective if it passes more than one of any of ...


2

"very" modifies only adjectives, not verbs: "*John very shot my dog." -> *"My dog was very shot."


2

None of your examples has a present participle. All the examples have gerunds or, in other words, Poss-ing nominalizations: a sentence with the verb "bake" has been converted into a noun phrase. This would be more obvious if you supplied your examples with a subject or object for "bake": "Joyce enjoys my baking cookies for her."


1

Historically it's the other way around. English lost its original active participle and replaced it with the construction on doing (with the gerund), which eroded to a-doing and then doing.


1

I'm not a linguist, so please forgive any apparent presumption on my part in venturing an answer here. I'm confident about what I'm saying but more interested in the discussion of this answer with experts, than I am in finding agreement. Conversion seems to apply only to morphological changes to a word's base form through affixation, or zero-derivation where ...


1

Who are these linguists? What language are they talking about? In Sanskrit, Greek, Latin (to name but a few) participles have tense and agree with their antecedent in gender and number.


1

It lies in the nature of the participle in German that it combines verbal and adjectival aspects. There is a German name for the participle, Mittelwort, which is coined for this double nature. Having said that, it is conventional to regard the German participle as a form of the verb. The reason is, that it can be regularly derived from the verb and the the ...


Only top voted, non community-wiki answers of a minimum length are eligible