In the monumental Old Turkic Dictionary ("Древнетюркский словарь", Наука, Л., 1969) it is written that Kent/Kənd is really of the Sogdian origin. The dictionary reflects the words found in the Turkic written records of the 7th - 13th centuries.
The word Kent is not there, but the word Kend redirects to Känd, to page 290, and here is the screenshot of the ...
dušman and δυσμενής are Indo-European cognates. The Persian word comes from Old Iranian *duš-manyu- (cf Avestan dušmanah-), “whose mind is bad”. The Punjabi word (also Hindi, Urdu etc.) is a borrowing from Persian.
Gh would be preferable to q in my opinion.
In Iranian Persian, q̈âf has merged with ġayn, both representing a [ɣ]~[ɢ], sound. While this sound doesn’t exist in English, the closest sound is certainly [g], which is how a terminal gh would naturally be pronounced here.
The use of q is more for etymological purposes (to distinguish q̈âf from ġayn). However an ...
There are two different issues here. First: New Persian never had a voiceless /ϑ/, at least not in words of Persian origin (though it is possible that in early Islamic times bi-lingual speakers did pronounce ث correctly as /ϑ/ in Arabic loan words). گيومرث is simply a misspelling of گيومرت which happened to catch on in this proper name. It entered the ...
Your friend is right about Uighur being Turkic. But Persian is not Turkic; it's Indo-European, so lexical similarity between these languages is going to be VERY low and limited to a few loan-words. From what I can tell, the only thing that's similar is the alphabet, both having been derived from Arabic.
It is hard to work from transliteration alone, rather than original orthography and/or phonemic transcription and I am no Persian specialist, but the word "hasty" is very obviously derived from "haste", which is itself a loanword from the old french "haste" that became "hâte" in modern French.
"Haste" comes from the Frankish stratum, it is theorized to be ...
Nişanyan gives this table in his etymological dictionary of Turkish (Sözlerin Soyağacı, ISBN: 9789752896369):
Front consonants: ب ت ث ج ز س ش ك ل م ن ه ی
Back consonants: ح خ ص ض ط ظ ع غ ق
Unstable consonants: د ذ ر ف و
You can look here for what consonants they correspond to in Ottoman Turkish (it didn't change much since ...
The word for “sugar” in virtually all languages goes back to Sanskrit śárkarā. From Sanskrit it developed into North-West Prakrit śakara, which was borrowed into Middle Persian as šakar, and then from Persian into Arabic as sukkar. The words in European languages all derive directly or indirectly from Arabic.
The shift of classical Persian ān to ūn is a feature of Tehran dialect (Tehrūnī), and of many other forms of colloquial Persian. It is an example of “labialization”. This phenomenon is widespread in languages of the world; we have it in English when we write “all” but pronounce it like “awl”.
I don't know Persian, however I have some knowledge of linguistics. The example given seems to be linked to a shift in register (different use of language in different circumstances). The formal form is 'greater effort'; the informal form is 'lower effort' / more relaxed, which here is a shift from the higher pitched 'a' sound to the lower pitched 'u' ...
Yes, the standard forms of the Persian of Iran, Afghan Persian, and Tajiki are mutually understandable. They are about as different as British and American English. But this does not mean that all dialects are likely to be understood in the other countries, or even in different regions of the same country.
ἆρα is considered to be cognate with the interrogative particle in Baltic languages (Latvian ar, Lithuanian aȓ).
Persian āyā does not have a known ancestor in Old or Middle Persian. In early New Persian it does occur, alongside ay اى with the same function. From the viewpoint of regular sound correspondence, any connection with ἆρα is quite out of the ...
First, you seem to be starting from the assumption that all words that are similar between Persian and other IE languages must be cognates. But that's not true; there are three distinct reasons two words can be similar:
Actual cognates. In your first example, "Tochter" and "دختر" ("duxtar") are both direct descendants of PIE *dʰugh₂tḗr.
Pure accident. Your ...
Here in Mackenzie’s dictionary verbs are normally cited in the infinitive form, but if (as in this case) the infinitive is not attested, the dictionary quotes the present stem followed by a hyphen. So bēšāz(ēn)- means that the present stem of this verb can be either bēšāzēn- or just bēšāz-.
“M” introduces the spelling in Manichaean script.
You might find ...
Henning, Das Verbum des Mittelpersischen der Turfanfragmente (1933) p. 187 posited Iranian *xwaz, ‘wish, want’, represented by Middle and New Persian xwāh-, with long-grade present stem, the regular SW Iranian shift of /z/ to /d/, and then a specifically Persian dialect shift of /d/ to /h/.
Johnny Cheung, Etymological dictionary of the Iranian verb (2007), ...
Your first question: Avestan and Old Persian are the two attested Old Iranian languages. Both are very close to the reconstructed Old Iranian, and thus to one another. New Persian (Fārsī) is (mainly) descended from Old Persian, but it has moved very far from Old Iranian.
Your second question: The Zoroastrians in Iran and India do sometimes write New Persian ...
In Arabic, تَسْبِيح [tasbi:ħ] is pronounced with s. It may well be common in human languages that sequences of obstruents agree in voicing, and the main tendency is for regressive assimilation, but such assimilation is not inevitable.
No. Farsi has no grammatical gender, its nouns are not divided into Masculine, Feminine, and Neuter, neither are its adjectives. Farsi even has no distinction between 'he' and 'she', both of them are the same, /u/ او.
Dari is Persian as spoken in Afghanistan. The difference between Afghan Persian and Iranian Persian is about as great as that between British English and American English. They sound a bit different, but they are basically the same. Most Afghans (though perhaps not all) do understand Dari/Persian, even in the Pashto speaking areas.
I see evidence that this is just some relatively modern shift in pronunciation in Persian in some accents.
For example, i in the pronunciation of kitab is preserved in 1) the languages which inherited the word from earlier Persian (Turkish, Azeri, Kazakh, Pashto, Urdu, Hindi... and many more) and the 2) Persian outside Iran, eg Dari and Tajik.
It also ...
Even in RTL languages you are still writing numbers and numbers are LTR so when writing numbers we should treat them as LTR so -10°C is the correct way.
Consider the following example from Persian:
هوا نزدیک 10- بود
The temperature was nearly minus 10 degrees
most of the mathematical abbreviations are written exactly as they are written in Latin ...
The name Jacob is well-known among Jews, Christians and Muslims. In Iran this name is known in all communities in the Arabic/Qurʼanic form Yaʻqūb يعقوب but in Persian the Arabic letter q ق is pronounced as a fricative /γ/. The Arabic ʻ ع is silent in Persian.
I agree with Yellow Sky, however I just need to add that some adjectives which are borrowed from Arabic have actually brought the Feminine and Masculine forms which happen to be actually used a lot in legal/formal context.
An example would be:
محترم and محترمه
(meaning respectful, honourable, respected)
Which is a title referred to a man and woman.
The –lū suffix in colloquial (not standard) Persian is in fact borrowed from Turkish. The –am suffix for “my” is Middle Persian –am, Old Persian –may, Vedic me: in short, Indo-Iranian and ultimately Indo-European. Middle Persian –am is attested long before the earliest contacts between Persians and Turks. The identity with Turkish –am is coincidence.
The word for “sea” occurs across the board in Iranian: Avestan zraiiah-, Old Persian drayah-, Middle Persian drayā(b) (also: zrēh), New Persian daryā; probably cognate with Sanskrit jrayas- ‘expanse’.
The NP verb daryāftan is of course dar + yāftan, so it is not connected with the word for “sea”, except as a poet’s pun.
ق occurs in Arabic and Turkish/Mongolian loanwords. غ occurs in Arabic, Turko-Mongolian and a few words of Iranian (but usually not Persian) origin.
Arabic was the official language in Islamic Iran for a long time and for this reason many place-names are used in an "official" Arabicised form, even if they are of Persian origin e.g. اصفهان for Persian spahān....
I think I understand what you are asking. Urdu, like Persian, is written with Arabic script, with a few extra letters. The numbers are written with the Eastern form of the Arabic (originally Indian) numerals. So yes, they do use the same unicode coding.