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12

It wasn't always written this way: in the earliest records of written Polish (such as the Bull of Gniezno), the letters "u" and "v" were used for this sound as well. There was no official "standard" for Polish orthography (or, for that matter, the Polish language) until the 18th century. At this point, the letter "w" had already come to mean /v/ in German, ...


10

I can recommend this book: Słownik odmiany rzeczowników polskich by Stanisław Mędrak. The good news is that it's exactly what you want: a dictionary that lists all the noun declension paradigms. The bad news is that there are over 500 such paradigms. Crazy, I know. But of course they have a lot in common, and they are grouped into six main classes: class ...


9

Native Polish born in Upper Silesia here. Here is my answer: When a native Silesian of older generation (say, 60+) speaks standard Polish, he/she has a strong regional accent which includes following features: Nasal vowel ę before consonants, is completely decomposed and shifted towards 'yn'. Std. Polish 'ręka' is typically pronounced renka with a slightly ...


7

You are absolutely right, the change N > M is due to the influence of Michael. That happened not only in Polish, but also in Ukrainian: Микола, Миколай (Mykola, Mykolaj) Belarusian: Мікалай (Mikalaj) Czech and Slovak: Mikuláš Upper Sorbian: Mikławš Lower Sorbian: Miklawš Slovenian: Miklavž. UPD: Best wishes on Saint Nicholas' Day, which is celebrated ...


6

In short, ć, ź, dź and ś are alveolo-palatal consonants, all articulated with the tongue raised towards the alveolar ridge (located just behind the upper teeth) and the palate (the roof of the mouth behind the alveolar ridge): On the other hand, cz, ż, dż and sz are retroflex consonants, all articulated with the tip of the tongue pointed upwards or even ...


6

There are many explanations for the properties of a given random sound file on the internet. Since Wiki provides virtually no metadata on recordings, one can only speculate as to the circumstances of a recording. That token certainly doesn't tell you anything about the structure of the language. One step in the direction of making the question be about the ...


6

TL;DR: Your assumption is correct, "the new relation" is the main subject, while "result of the expression" is the nominal predicate. It's a remnant of the ancient Essive/Translative grammatical cases that existed in older languages, retained in some modern languages (Uralic family), but is obsolete (converted to Instrumental) in modern Slavonic languages. ...


5

I will assume that by "translate" you mean which syllables in words loaned by Japanese correspond to [x] in their source language. The answer is that words containing [x] which come directly from languages with that phoneme are sometimes rendered ッハ hha. The most common examples would be Bach バッハ Bahha and Mach マッハ Mahha. Other times, it is simply rendered ...


5

As indicated, Slovenian and Polish are from different subgroups of Slavic languages (South Slavic and West Slavic respectively). As such they are not mutually intelligible (actually spoken Czech and Polish are not very mutually intelligible, yet they are in the same group). In phonology, Slovenian has less consonant distinctions (they mostly got rid of ...


5

The suffix *-isk- is Indo-European. It has offspring in Greek, Germanic, Baltic and Slavic, and also in Romance, where it seems to be borrowed from Germanic.


5

Areal features are often under-appreciated, especially the more subtle structural and semantic ones, as opposed to the more superficial lexical and phonological ones. And the contact between Slavic and Germanic was certainly significant, and started before the written record, which therefore makes it difficult to fully understand. And there are more ...


5

Being a native speaker of Czech, which is quite close to Polish, I think ambiguity can be avoided, or at least reduced, to some extent. As for your Polish sentence, it would probably be wrong to use the genitive. In Czech, we would simply leave out the preposition, and I thought the same could be done in Polish (which I can speak a little, coming from a ...


4

You can find some information about the language boundary in the project "Digitaler Wenkeratlas" at http://regionalsprache.de/ (not easy to navigate even with knowledge of German; the main Wenker map is under http://regionalsprache.de/SprachGis/Map.aspx?shortUrl=Y1vbU283 but you cannot click through to the questionaires). Note that Wenker was ...


4

In Polish, ambiguity in that case is not existent. I killed the man with a spoon (man with spoon) - Zabiłem człowieka z łyżką I killed the man with a spoon (using a spoon) - Zabiłem człowieka łyżką Both of the polish sentences are completely unambiguous. Instrument of an action is expressed always in the instrumental case, with no preposition at all. ...


4

The answer is, the case system can help avoid ambiguity, but it is not a silver bullet. From the functional standpoint, the example sentence is actually two distinct phrases: killed (a man who has a spoon); (killed using a spoon) a man; Each of them convey a different message and therefore they can be represented with two distinct syntax trees. It is only ...


3

The original sound in Western Slavic dialects in place of today's /v/ was bilabial /w/. I can't find a good reference, but here the corresponding consonant is definitely stated as bilabial. It is possible, that they didn't want to use the same symbol which was used for V in Latin because the sound was different. In Czech the situation was similar, the sound ...


3

I'm Polish and I can assure you that nowadays "ch" and "h" are pronounced exactly the same. Only elderly people (really few), especially in Eastern Poland, still keep the sound [h]. By the way, this is one of the reasons why so many Poles struggle with spelling: they confuse "ch" with "h", the same happens with "u" and "ó" (both pronounced as [u]) or "ż" and ...


3

In Polish, most (if not all) words containing letter ⟨h⟩ are actually loanwords as there was no [h]/[ɦ] sound in Polish (as opposed to Czech, Slovak and Ukrainian, where [ɦ] evolved from Slavic [g]). As the voiced [ɦ] is a pretty rare sound, most languages including Latin used unvoiced [h], which was quite naturally adopted into Polish as [x], with which it ...


3

⟨ch⟩ is pronounced [x] in Polish and as many other Polish sounds, it can undergo so called "voice assimilation". Assimilation is a process during which a speech sound gets a feature from an adjacent or otherwise close speech sound. Typical example of the is the voice assimilation, causing that the voicedness of a consonant depends typically on the consonant ...


3

Some languages would have ambiguity between instrument and attributive possessum (and possibly also comitative `I went with a friend'), and some won't. This is not strictly dependent on case. For instance, the sentence you give will be ambiguous in German (1) Er ermordete dem Mann mit der Gabel. he.NOM killed DEF.ACC man with DEF.DAT fork `He killed the man ...


3

I would say that undocumented languages with very few speakers are extremely difficult to learn. Even for children. An extinct language with no trace left must be the answer to your question. All living languages with compact communities are reasonably easy to learn, the laws of evolution require that. A language that is too difficult to be learned (both by ...


3

To be precise, it is /wudʑ/ and in most contexts it will be pronounced [wut͡ɕ]. Phonologically there is phoneme /dʑ/ because when you decline the word, there is a vowel that follows, the phoneme stays sonorous, e.g. "Łodzi" [wodʑi]. But otherwise, the sonority is lost/neutralised at the end of the word, so unless the following word starts with voiced ...


3

There is a large variation in translation quality inside a given language pair. My guess is that this variation outweighs any systematic effects caused by choosing different target languages. Even if there were a tendency towards better translation quality for an "easier" language pair (I am not aware of any systematic studies of this question) I'd ask about ...


3

I have known a few languages other than Polish throughout my lifetime, which include Russian, English, French, Greek, and Hebrew, but in none of them have I observed any consistent difference between male and female speakers. The differences are almost surely there. They may be subtle, or quite variable because they interact with other sociolinguistic ...


2

The rounded vowels /y/ and /ø/ are realised as /i/ and /e/ in the Saxon dialect and used to be pronounced this way in Silesian and East Prussian dialects of German: This sound change is universal and happens everywhere around the world. It's just a simple delabialization. Taken alone, it doesn't prove anything. English had same reflexes, hence we have some ...


2

In Russian, instrumental case applies only for past/future tenses, never for present tense (if by "copula" we mean "to be" only; Ukrainian, on the other hand, allows it in present tense as well, but I think it's an influence from Polish). I suspect copula+INSTR could arise from interference with other static verbs of "being", where instrumental is normal, ...


2

There is some confusion of phonetic transcription with Polish spelling here. To clear things up: The digraph "ch" and the letter "h" (when not preceded by "c") are pronounced in exactly the same way in modern standard Polish: as the voiceless velar fricative /x/. The sounds /h/ and /ɦ/ are absent in Polish. In fact, many Polish speakers can't pronounce /h/ ...


2

The main classification of Slavic divides it into South Slavic, West Slavic and East Slavic. The most important partition of Slavic languages is the band that separates South Slavic from the rest of Slavdom, cemented by the establishment of the Magyars in Pannonia. But there are features shared by South Slavic and East Slavic but not West Slavic, and ...


2

Your understanding is quite decent. The oblique case in Hindi is used before postpositions which correspond to the case suffix in more richly inflected languages. Since the nominative requires no postposition, there is correspondence with the Hindi nominative and that of other languages. A study of Marathi, a related Indian language, would help. It is ...


1

As I am a native speaker of both Silesian and Polish and a profesional linquist living in Central Poland (Warsaw) and taking conclusions from some research which was carried out at my university and from conversations with people speaking only Polish I can say that the distance between Silesian and Polish is like between Polish and Slovakian. Of course there ...


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