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16 votes
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Why does Polish use "w" instead of "v"?

It wasn't always written this way: in the earliest records of written Polish (such as the Bull of Gniezno), the letters "u" and "v" were used for this sound as well. There was no official "standard" ...
Draconis's user avatar
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13 votes
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Why does "brother" have the instrumental case in this Polish sentence?

I don't understand either grammatically or morally, how is "brother" an instrument with which the subject goes on a walk. You are right, brother is not an instrument here. "I go with ...
Be Brave Be Like Ukraine's user avatar
10 votes
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Declensions in Polish

I can recommend this book: Słownik odmiany rzeczowników polskich by Stanisław Mędrak. The good news is that it's exactly what you want: a dictionary that lists all the noun declension paradigms. The ...
michau's user avatar
  • 1,779
9 votes

What is the difference between Silesian Polish and neutral/standard Polish?

Native Polish born in Upper Silesia here. Here is my answer: When a native Silesian of older generation (say, 60+) speaks standard Polish, he/she has a strong regional accent which includes following ...
Wojciech's user avatar
9 votes

Why does "brother" have the instrumental case in this Polish sentence?

The preposition z meaning 'with' takes the instrumental case, is all. E.g. Mieszkam w domu z ogrodem You say The instrumental case is used to indicate the instrument/object with which an action or ...
Mark Beadles's user avatar
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7 votes
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why in Polish we change ją to jej when negating the phrase?

Yes, you do understand correctly what those sentences mean. In the Slavic languages in general and in Polish in particular, the direct object of a verb is in the Accusative case when the verb is ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
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6 votes
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Instrumental - nominative inversion in Polish

TL;DR: Your assumption is correct, "the new relation" is the main subject, while "result of the expression" is the nominal predicate. It's a remnant of the ancient Essive/Translative grammatical ...
Be Brave Be Like Ukraine's user avatar
6 votes
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What is the difference between sibilant sounds in Polish? (ć,ś,dź,ź vs cz,sz,dż,ż,rz)

In short, ć, ź, dź and ś are alveolo-palatal consonants, all articulated with the tongue raised towards the alveolar ridge (located just behind the upper teeth) and the palate (the roof of the mouth ...
michau's user avatar
  • 1,779
6 votes

Why is the Polish pronunciation of Łódź [wut͡ɕ] rather than [wudʑ]?

There are many explanations for the properties of a given random sound file on the internet. Since Wiki provides virtually no metadata on recordings, one can only speculate as to the circumstances of ...
user6726's user avatar
  • 83.2k
6 votes

How similar are Polish and Slovenian?

As indicated, Slovenian and Polish are from different subgroups of Slavic languages (South Slavic and West Slavic respectively). As such they are not mutually intelligible (actually spoken Czech and ...
Eleshar's user avatar
  • 2,363
6 votes

Why does Polish language not use letters Č, Š, and Ž?

"Tradition" is the best explanation. Czech, Polish, Slovak and even Hungarian face similar problems of having consonants lacking Latin equivalents. When the Latin alphabet was first ...
user6726's user avatar
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6 votes
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Feudali“zmie” or feudali“źmie”?

The suffix -izm is borrowed from Greek via Latin, it's not native Polish, but in the Polish native words z is palatalized to ź [ʑ] before a palatalized m (mi/mie), cf.: wezmę ‘I will take’ with z ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
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5 votes
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Can the voiceless velar fricative, [x], be represented in Japanese?

I will assume that by "translate" you mean which syllables in words loaned by Japanese correspond to [x] in their source language. The answer is that words containing [x] which come directly from ...
jogloran's user avatar
  • 5,144
5 votes
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Influence of Polish and Czech on the phonology of German dialects

Areal features are often under-appreciated, especially the more subtle structural and semantic ones, as opposed to the more superficial lexical and phonological ones. And the contact between Slavic ...
Adam Bittlingmayer's user avatar
4 votes

Why does Polish have male and female accents?

I have known a few languages other than Polish throughout my lifetime, which include Russian, English, French, Greek, and Hebrew, but in none of them have I observed any consistent difference between ...
drammock's user avatar
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3 votes

How Polish influenced Ukrainian

The reason why two languages differ is always complex, there's no one single factor, it's the combination of the factors. You can look at it as you've formulated, or you can look at it like Russian ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
  • 18.5k
3 votes

Is there a phonological division in Slavic languages as important as the La Spezia-Rimini line? If not, is there a most important partition anyway?

The main classification of Slavic divides it into South Slavic, West Slavic and East Slavic. The most important partition of Slavic languages is the band that separates South Slavic from the rest of ...
Adam Bittlingmayer's user avatar
3 votes

Are Polish-> Russan translations generally better than Polish->English?

There is a large variation in translation quality inside a given language pair. My guess is that this variation outweighs any systematic effects caused by choosing different target languages. Even if ...
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
3 votes
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Why is the Polish pronunciation of Łódź [wut͡ɕ] rather than [wudʑ]?

To be precise, it is /wudʑ/ and in most contexts it will be pronounced [wut͡ɕ]. Phonologically there is phoneme /dʑ/ because when you decline the word, there is a vowel that follows, the phoneme stays ...
Eleshar's user avatar
  • 2,363
3 votes

Why does Polish use "w" instead of "v"?

The original sound in Western Slavic dialects in place of today's /v/ was bilabial /w/. I can't find a good reference, but here the corresponding consonant is definitely stated as bilabial. It is ...
Vladimir F Героям слава's user avatar
3 votes
Accepted

When does the voiceless velar fricative, [x], undergo voicing?

⟨ch⟩ is pronounced [x] in Polish and as many other Polish sounds, it can undergo so called "voice assimilation". Assimilation is a process during which a speech sound gets a feature from an adjacent ...
Eleshar's user avatar
  • 2,363
3 votes

What is the nature of the voiceless velar fricative, [x], in Polish?

I'm Polish and I can assure you that nowadays "ch" and "h" are pronounced exactly the same. Only elderly people (really few), especially in Eastern Poland, still keep the sound [h]. By the way, this ...
Paula's user avatar
  • 131
3 votes
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What is the nature of the voiceless velar fricative, [x], in Polish?

In Polish, most (if not all) words containing letter ⟨h⟩ are actually loanwords as there was no [h]/[ɦ] sound in Polish (as opposed to Czech, Slovak and Ukrainian, where [ɦ] evolved from Slavic [g]). ...
Eleshar's user avatar
  • 2,363
3 votes
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Why is there a Second Palatalization in personal nouns but not in non-personal nouns in Nominative Plural in Slavic languages

That's not a common-Slavic, but purely Polish phenomenon, since Polish distinguishes masculine persons' vs. other nouns' declension patterns in the plural (human vs. nonhuman). In other Slavic ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
  • 18.5k
3 votes
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Question about a phrase with the Polish case genetive (dopełniacz)

Do is found in all the Slavic languages as a preposition with the meanings “[up] to” and “before”. In all the Slavic languages which have cases, this preposition governs only the genitive case, so it'...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
  • 18.5k
2 votes

What is the nature of the voiceless velar fricative, [x], in Polish?

There is some confusion of phonetic transcription with Polish spelling here. To clear things up: The digraph "ch" and the letter "h" (when not preceded by "c") are pronounced in exactly the same way ...
michau's user avatar
  • 1,779
2 votes

The easiest model for mapping Hindi oblique case onto Slavic languages' case systems

Your understanding is quite decent. The oblique case in Hindi is used before postpositions which correspond to the case suffix in more richly inflected languages. Since the nominative requires no ...
007's user avatar
  • 164
2 votes
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Why does the pronoun and verb order vary in Polish language?

The Polish pronouns ja (“I”), ty (“you singular, thou”), on (“he”), ono (“it”) have two sets of forms in the Genitive, Dative, and Accusative cases: a full form and a clitic form. The clitic form has ...
Yellow Sky's user avatar
  • 18.5k
1 vote

Are alveolo-palatal consonants more likely to be followed by high vowels, whereas retroflex consonants are more likely followed by low vowels?

In both Polish and Mandarin, the alveolo-palatal spirants (fricatives or affricates) originated from other spirants before (high) front vowels. The vowels may have shifted a little since, but the ...
Tristan's user avatar
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1 vote
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Do Polish 'rz' /ž š/ and rhotic English have something in common?

I don't understand what you are actually asking, but I suppose it has to do with how people pronounce the guy's name. What is the "archaising" pronunciation that you're talking about? If you ...
user6726's user avatar
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