10

From this book in Asturian: D'una voz indíxena americana HURAKAN que'l cast. huracán fexo llegar al fr. ouragan y al it. uragano (REW s.v. hurakan). L'ast., lo mesmo que'l port. furacão, gall. furacán, cat. furacà, almiten el castellanismu orixinariamente aspiráu adautándolu con f- acordies col sistema fonolóxicu que desconocía l'aspiración d'aniciu, a nun ...


8

The map you have doesn't pass the sniff test for me. I don't imagine anyone realistically saying Catalonian being closer to Spanish than Galician. I can't speak for other Romance groups, but for Iberian languages, the chart on Wikipedia is in line with my experience (I speak Asturian, Castilian, and Portuguese, and regularly consume media in Galician and ...


7

In the late sixteenth century, there was a sporadic sound change in Portuguese which caused some stressed, word-final /i/s to become nasalised. Examples: sim, marfim, assim, metim, morim. An older theory is that it was an influence of the nasalisation present in the antonym não.


6

I think you might be conflating phonetic and phonemic voicing. If you are really talking about phonetic voicing, the answer is that it is quite common to find affricates that are only partially voiced. As @jlawler points out, the phoneme /dʒ/ in English is considered phonologically voiced, and it contrasts with /tʃ/. But phonetically, what is broadly ...


5

Québec, which originated as a French colony in North America, offers a very clear counterexample: it is well-known that speakers of Québécois French use tu in many more situations and much more readily than speakers of European French do. And when Québécois French speakers start with vous, they tend to shift to tu more quickly than a speaker of European ...


4

The rule is different. It only applies when the possessive pronoun is substantive: Este é meu livro, o seu é o outro. (This is my book, yours is the other one.) In most other contexts, the use of the definite article is optional, not mandatory, and I don't think there is any difference between Brazilian Portuguese and European Portuguese in this regard. In ...


3

This is a summary of the information on CJV Lang, which has a much more detailed view on the naming of the 7-day week across many languages. But in essence: Neither dynastic China nor Vietnam had a real concept of a 7-day civilian week. The 10-day cycle 旬 xún was more common. Contact with Buddhism, especially in the 8th century, brought the 7-day cycle to ...


3

There are fast and slow languages, measured in syllables per second. I don't know about Portuguese, but Spanish is a fast language while English is a slow language. There is a correlation between the complexity of allowed syllables and slowness of a language: The more complex a syllable is, the slower the language. So maybe the syllable complexity of ...


3

Not a complete answer, but to the question on variations in different standards and dialects: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brazilian_Portuguese#Definite_article_before_possessive The Portuguese version says that both standards allow both variants, but that there are perceptions that the definite article is used less in Brasil. https://pt.wikipedia.org/...


3

I'm not very familiar with the history of Portuguese phonetics, but my guess is that when the word huracán was imported in Spanish (being then aspirated, unlike now), when it got to the Portuguese, they likely lacked the sound and so f was probably a pretty good substitute.


3

I don't know how "comprehensive" it is, but the Portal da Língua Portuguesa has a phonetic dictionary that seems to do a pretty good job. An interesting feature of it is that you can change the dialect, choosing among dialects from Portugal, Brazil, Africa and East Timor.


2

Based on my experience, the vowels most likely to be deleted are going to be the vowels in the first syllable of a consonant-initial word, unstressed syllables whose deletions result in pronounciations still "possible" in the phonetic system, vowels in the same syllable (especially e/i) with sibilants (which makes the sibilant syllabic), and word-final ...


2

It is a case of two or more homonyms (or homographs) accidentally occurring next to each other. I do not think there is a name for it, but it occurs in all languages and is quite banal. An English example: THE POLISH POLISH POLISH BOOTS WITH POLISH POLISH.


2

I'm not familiar with these languages, so I can't give a complete answer to your question. I just wanted to point out that "opposites" is a pretty strong term for two words with such similar meanings as "here" and "there". They're both demonstratives; it's relatively simple for demonstratives to change with regard to proximal/distal usage. E.g. the French ...


2

I think it may be not a definitive answer for your question, but I hope it will clarify and explain a few things. Well, until the XV century, tu (from latin TV) and vós (from latin VOS) were regularly used as second person singular and second person plural respectively and conjugated as such. I'm going to be using "thou" and "you" to make it clearer. E.g.: ...


1

The premise may be wrong. According to a few web searches, "consequentemente" does exist - see for example http://eur-lex.europa.eu/LexUriServ/LexUriServ.do?uri=COM:2000:0127:FIN:PT:PDF which would have been translated by a native speaker of European Portuguese, probably from English. It could be that such instances usually come as a result of ...


1

Without historical data on the dialect, I'd think that the second hypothesis (Or might this be best explained as dropping the [u] by syncope and adding a [i] by prothesis?) sounds natural and plausible. But maybe, you can dig up historical records shedding more light on the evolution of the São Vicente dialect of Cape Verdean Creole.


1

Superficially subject and object markings do not always correlate with semantic "subject" and "object". For example in English: I won the election. It's clearly everybody else (unless you too went to polls) who made you that way. So the grammatic subject "I" really stands for some experiencer/object first person. In your question example, one of the ...


1

If I understand what you're saying, I would have thought the canto vowel change (at least how it's pronounced in the song you~ve linked) is because it comes before an 'n'. The 'an' sound in (at least São Paulista) Portuguese to me always seems to do this.


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