50

Yes, this feature is called clusivity, there are dozens of languages that have it, for example Mandarin Chinese, Vietnamese, Malay, Hawaiian, etc. This article has a list of such languages together with their inclusive and exclusive forms of "we": Clusivity (Wikipedia).


46

This strategy to deal with person groups of mixed gender or with single persons of unknown or undetermined gender is named generic masculine. It is quite frequent among languages with grammatical gender.


37

Yes there are. Examples include Greenlandic and Cree. It's not exactly what you asked for, as it doesn't depend on whether it's the last antecedent, or second-to-last antecedent. But in these languages, 3rd person pronouns are in two categories; proximate and obviative (obviative is sometimes called fourth person). The proximate one is one that the ...


32

The World Atlas of Language Structures has a feature about gender distinctions in personal pronouns. According to it, there are at least 254 languages without gender distinctions and even 2 with gender distinctions in 1st and 2nd, but not 3rd person pronouns (Iraqw and Burunge).


29

In Thai, 1st person singular pronouns differ by gender: Masc.: ผม [pʰǒm] Fem.: ดิฉัน [dìʔt͡ɕʰán]


28

English marks plurality in first and third person pronouns (I vs. we, he/she/it vs. they), but not in the second person (you). (The singular thou did exist in English in the past, but is now considered obsolete.) According to WALS chapter 35 (paragraph 5.1), about 20% of languages distinguish plurality in either first person or second person but not both. ...


24

There are many such languages. Examples include Turkic languages (as kiyoshigaang's answer mentions), Uralic languages (such as Finnish, Hungarian, Estonian), spoken Mandarin and Cantonese, and doubtless many others. Languages which lack grammatical gender generally will usually lack gendered third-person pronouns specifically (although there are exceptions ...


24

Coming at this from a different direction, Japanese personal pronouns (*) are an open class, with many variations in meaning and connotation. So while there's no official "first-person masculine pronoun", 俺 (ore) is primarily used by men, and あたし (atashi) primarily by women. Others, like 私 (watashi), don't have strong gender associations. All of ...


23

Proto-Afro-Asiatic likely marked gender on second-person pronouns, and many of its descendants do the same. For example, second-person singular masculine is אַתָּה (ʔattāh) in Hebrew, أَنْتَ‎ (ʔanta) in Arabic, atta in Akkadian, ntk in Egyptian; feminine is Hebrew אַתְּ (ʔattə), Arabic أَنْتِ (ʔanti), Akkadian atti, Egyptian ntṯ. I don't know of any Afro-...


17

Yes, it's been extensively studied; perhaps the first paper was Ron Langacker's 1966 "On Pronominalization and the Chain of Command". The major generalization seems to be statable as A pronoun may not both precede and command its antecedent. In the following examples Marilyn('s) and her are meant to be co-referential: I talked to Marilyn before her ...


13

One interesting marker of social distinctions is an avoidance register, a special way of speaking to certain family members. You might also hear this called mother-in-law language or hlonipha/isihlonipho, after some of the most famous examples. In general, languages with this feature have a special, usually very restricted register (=way of speaking), with ...


13

In some sign languages, pointing is used as a pronoun. It makes different distinctions to the ones made by English pronouns. In English, he, she, this, that and it are different. He and him are different. These distinctions are not made in the sign languages of English speaking countries. Instead, you can point directly at a person or thing instead of using ...


13

In Spanish that happends for plural: nosotros (1st person plural masculine) nosotras (1st person plural femenine) In Japanese there are several forms for the first form depending on gender or even age! watashi (I, for boys although it can be used by girls too) atashi (I, for feminine) The funny thing is that they are written the same: 私. For plural, the same ...


12

Some varieties of English have plural personal pronouns that are composed in roughly the way you're asking. Southern US English you'all/ y'all is composed of the 2nd p. singular pronoun + plural marker all. Because there is now a separate 2nd p. plural pronoun you tends to be restricted to singular reference. I understand the other comments as saying that ...


12

As already said, Japanese works this way: 私 + 達 = we watashi tachi But the same happens in Chinese as well: 我 + 们 = we wo men The first portion of both is the standard way to say "I" (we'll ignore other versions for the sake of this answer). The second is a plural marker.


12

From what I've heard, Korean has traditionally had two first-person pronouns reserved for royalty: 과인(gwain, 寡人) and 짐 (jim, 朕). They are both borrowed from classical Chinese, I think. Korea does not have kings any more, and we only had emperors for a very brief period (when it was an empire in name only), so I'm not sure if there were ever consistent rules ...


11

Malayalam (no relation to Malay), a language spoken in the southern state of Kerala in India has this feature. You use "njangal" to exclude the person spoken to and "nammal" to include that person.


11

Although largely archaic, in some locations (some parts of Northern England/Cornwall/Ireland, among others) the word "ye" is still used as second-person-plural. It can also be found in some older works, such as the King James Bible: "Ye have not chosen me, but I have chosen you, and ordained you, that ye should go and bring forth fruit, and that your ...


11

Aside from obviative third person pronouns mentioned by OmarL, some languages have what are known as 'reflexive' pronouns. These pronouns refer directly back to the subject of the clause that they are part of (or the parent clause if they are the subject of their clause), and thus can either partially (if their use is optional) or completely (if they are ...


11

The masculine gender/noun class in many languages will be the unmarked option, with other genders/classes being marked. It is often (though not always) possible to use a less marked gender/class. Sometimes a noun might have a marked gender, but other words with agreement affixes might use a less marked gender. One example is Biblical Greek, in which certain ...


10

yous This regional term is predominantly used in Scotland and Ireland and throughout Australia, as well as overseas areas of previous Irish emigration e.g. some parts of the US (Boston, MA and Philadelphia, PA) and northern Nova Scotia and Lanark Ontario/Canada and South Auckland, New Zealand. It also occurs in Scouse (usually spelled "yous" as ...


10

This was too long for a comment, and I think it starts to go towards an answer, so I've posted it as such. Assumptions are, as I'm sure you're aware, often problematic. Modern Japanese, and to a lesser extent, Late Middle Japanese, are the odd men out when it comes to pronouns in Japonic languages. Old Japanese and the Ryukyuan languages have pronominal ...


10

Niger-Congo languages tend to have a system of noun classes, somewhat similar to gender in Indo-European languages (in terms of adjectives having to agree with nouns, for instance), but consisting of several categories of entities instead. In Swahili, the ki-vi class, while mainly used for inanimate objects, can be used, quoting Wiktionary, "for things ...


9

This is called clusivity, and although not found in European languages (AFAIK), it is found in South Asia and Australasia at least. An example of how this is used (as taken from Fantastic Features We Don't Have In The English Language (YouTube)): We've just won the lottery! In English this is unclear - is the listener included? If English had an ...


9

Within some branches of linguistics, it may be referred to as any of the following: reference resolution pronoun resolution pronoun reference resolution anaphora resolution Notice that reference resolution is a more general term which includes pronoun resolution.


9

Analogous to the word "maestro" in Western classical music to refer to conductors, Hindustani Classical music has "ustad" and "pandit" to address virtuoso performers. While either of them can be considered a translation of "maestro", in practice, "ustad" is used exclusively for Muslim virtuosi, and "pandit" for Hindu virtuosi. The titles in Pandit Ravi ...


9

English "honorifics" can denote marital status (for women only) - Mrs. vs Miss. (The newer Ms. marks the addressee as a woman without specifying marital status. All men are Mr. regardless of marital status. I've seen the newer Mx. as a gender-neutral honorific.) Dr. is very common (for doctors). I have seen a few others that denote specific professions but ...


9

According to Travis' comment in a Language Log blog post titled Royal Language, a first-person pronoun 朕 (chin) was used exclusively by the Japanese Emperor. (I note that this seems to be the same as the 'jim' mentioned in jick's answer.) This paper suggests that 'I Ratu' is a second person pronoun used when addressing royalty in Balinese, but also mentions ...


8

Edit: I had almost forgotten about the existence of WALS. Chapter 35 gives an overview of plurality in independent personal pronouns: Chapter Plurality in Independent Personal Pronouns. It looks like the category most relevant to your question is type 8 (person stem with a nominal plural affix). If you look at the map on WALS, you can see 19 type 8 ...


8

In general, anything can be borrowed, given intensive and prolonged language contact (Thomason 2001: 63) Borrowed relative pronouns (sources didn't mention examples): Gondi (Dravidian) has borrowed a Hindi relative pronoun (Thomason 2001: 116) Bodo and Rabha (Tibeto-Burman) have borrowed a relative pronoun from Indo-Aryan (Subharao 2011: 276) After a ...


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