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Any reasons for unexplained centumization in Balto-Slavic?

The idea that exceptions to the satem changes in Balto-Slavic has to do with dialect borrowing and/or dialect variation isn't very plausible, in my opinion, since no centum dialects are known in ...
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1 vote

Which PIE participle corresponds to PGmc past participle?

The Proto-Germanic (and Latin, and others) past passive participles correspond with the Proto-Indo-European verbal adjectives: From Beekes' 2011 p. 280: 18.9.2 The verbal adjective This is an ...
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Why does PIE *weydtos give PGmc wīsaz not wīssaz?

It probably did, but one of the last phonological changes that happened to create what we call ‘Proto-Germanic’ was that long *ss was reduced to short *s after long vowels or diphthongs. More ...
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2 votes
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Why does Proto-Slavic first-person singular present form have nasalized o-sound?

The thematic verbs in Proto-Slavic had the 1st p. sg. present suffix *-ăm > *-ŏn > *-ǫ whose origin is really obscure. The most probable source of this suffix is by analogy with the athematic ...
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