41

A why-question is almost unanswerable, the answer is "because it happened so". But there was a strong trigger for the replacement of bellum, namely the homophony with the word for "beautiful", in Latin bellus, bella, bellum. So for the stem bell- the meaning "beautiful" won over "war", and the word for war was replaced ...


18

The basic meaning of the Germanic *wirr is “disorder, chaos” etc. The shift in meaning to “warfare” originated in Frankish and is attested since the 9th century, spreading to French and then to other Romance languages. So this really has nothing to do with Roman soldiers. It bears witness to the fact that in the Frankish kingdom Latin was the language of ...


12

If you want inflectional forms, you'd have to look at the major Romance language which still inflects nouns, Romanian. Even there, you will only find a reflex of -orum in the articles as far as I'm aware, but the indefinite article inflects to unor from Latin unorum, and the definite article is even better because, while coming from ille like in other ...


10

(Latin to French) inflectional forms: chandeleur < festa candelarum leur < illorum toponyms like Villefavreux (< villa Villa Fabrorum) or Villepreux (< villa Piorum) fossilized expressions: French "quorum" maybe French "variorum" "Ouvrage accompagné de notes et commentaires." but I didn't know this word In Old ...


8

My Latin book in high school contained the theory that bellum referred to the well disciplined style practiced by the roman legions, while warra was the less disciplined fighting style adopted by the german tribes. With the fall of the empire, warra was the mainly adopted style, and thus also the word took over across the former territories of the empire.


5

The premise holds for most Romance languages but it is difficult to categorize Spanish (the largest latin language by number of speakers) as an SVO language. The earliest texts in medieval Spanish were all VSO and I, as a native Spanish speaker, tend to use VSO sentences slightly more often than SVO. I will say "Ya ha llegado Jose a casa" (already ...


4

I'm going to sum up what was said in the comments and maybe offer some conjecture, though I don't think it's possible to answer this question with great certainty. Latin did originally have a verb meaning 'to stand': stāre. Already in the Classical period, this verb also had the meaning 'to stay'. It's actually not the case that this verb was lost (in this ...


2

In the question the evolution of the Balkan romance languages is treated in the terms of a tree model with intermediate proto-languages at different stages. Some of the perceived difficulties can be resolved by assuming a wave model of language change. Now the archaic features of Aromanian (like the preservation of Latin ⟨cl⟩) are quite natural: It lies at ...


2

Sentences with pronominal arguments often behave differently from sentences with explicit arguments (in the Romance languages, these pronominal sentences follow the earlier default, SOV). Generally the form with explicit arguments is what's considered the basic order As such, a sentence like "the horse is eating an apple" is a better one to use ...


2

French is the most strictly SVO language followed by Italian. Spanish is extremely flexible in terms of word order - with VSO sentences being particularly common, possibly due to semitic influence. VSO sentences are totally forbidden in both Italian and French. Native Spanish speakers (such as myself) arguably use them more often than SVO.


1

That depends on how you define a Romance language. Linguists consider what first makes a language is its grammar, its basic structure and rules. Under that point of view, English is definitely a Germanic language. On the other hand, the average Joe, whatever its mother tongue, tend to consider the vocabulary to be the most important parameter to consider ...


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