25

Yes, it is possible to read texts that are written only in pinyin. This is pretty trivial in one sense: pinyin spelling indicates all of the segmental phonemic distinctions of standard Putonghua Chinese (it was designed to) and when used with tone marks and correct word division and punctuation, it indicates some of the suprasegmental and intonational ...


11

It is possible only if you write in an informal way – the way you would say things out loud. The difference between formal and informal writing is quite large in Chinese, and the informal style may feel very awkward in many circumstances. With Pinyin it wouldn't be possible to write everything the way it is written now. Some examples of clearly distinct ...


11

This is Legge Romanisation, as taken from the 1879 volume of Sacred Books of the East. It is a transcription of the "Mandarin" speech of 19th-century Beijing, which is slightly different to both later transcriptions of standard Mandarin e.g. Wade-Giles. The symbol under question bears most phonetic resemblance to the zemlja of the Cyrillic script, з, ...


10

No, it is not acceptable and it is never done. It used to be done before the changes that appeared gradually in the 15th century, inspired by a paper most likely written by Jan Hus around 1400. Before that the orthography did indeed use these digraphs, although somewhat differently. cz meant c, not č chz meant č zz meant s ss meant š ... in the older form. ...


9

There are several different standards, so which one you want to use will depend on your goal. For the purpose of conversing on the internet, for example, most people use ch; for linguistic purposes, ḥ is standard; for just using Hebrew words in an English context, just plain h is common. Anecdotally, I would expect most linguists to understand x (since it's ...


8

You have had some good answers to your question, but I would like to expand on what you say about Vietnamese writing traditions. The Chinese-based chữ nôm had a very marginal existence in Vietnam, being used almost exclusively for poetry and for “women’s literature” (basically translations - or imitations - of Chinese novels by and for women). The main ...


7

Beyond other answers, I will add some examples of actual use of phonetic writing systems actually used for Chinese (or any Sinitic language, what is traditionally called Chinese dialects/topolects). These example show that it is linguistically possible to use a phonetic script to write Chinese; of course, doing so would be a major revolutionary change, ...


5

(Foreword: if you want to be pedantic, this will be a transcription or a bound transcription, representing the phonemes as best we can, but not necessarily representing the orthography.) The list you've found on Wikipedia are the uniliteral signs. Each of these originally represented a single consonant phoneme in the standard dialect (though this changed ...


5

The de facto standard method for transcribing Ainu (both in Latin alphabet and in katakana) being used today is the one proposed in Akor Itak, a textbook published by the Hokkaido Utari Association (now Hokkaido Ainu Association) in 1994. It is often referred to as “(nearly) phonemic transcription” ((簡易)音素表記 in Japanese). What makes it different from some of ...


4

The idea of pinyin or any other phonetic script replacing Chinese character writing is already more than a hundred years old. At the beginning of 20th century, when the Qing empire was collapsing, a lot of scholars came to the conclusion that it is because of China’s backwardness. They kept comparing China to the West and realized that in terms of technology,...


3

Pinyin, Vietnamese, Danish and Norwegian are already romanized (written in a Latin-based script), the first example by definition (it's the now-standard romanization of Mandarin). You didn't mention French in your first list, which uses more diacritics that Norwegian, so are you really asking "how hard would it be to get rid of all of the diacritics as well"....


3

I think the best way to understand this statement is to ask, why is فعلوا not pronounced [faʕalawā] (or various other possibilities like [fiʕalawā, faʕulawā, fiʕlawā]...). This omission of short vowels including the practice of leaving out sukun (no vowel) is one known non-phonetic aspect of the spelling system. As a speaker of Arabic, you would just ...


3

The answer is yes, there are ways to convert in both directions, as long as you don't mind the intermediary of chữ Hán (hànzì). On Mac, for example, you can add the VNI input source for Vietnamese in Keyboard Settings. Type one syllable such as 'chữ', then highlight it and select 'convert to Hán-Nôm' in the Input Sources dropdown menu. You will be given a ...


3

It would be possible to use pinyin even without the tone marks to write down Chinese and it will be correctly understood. Actually, a similar thing has been done in the Dungan language for decades already, the only difference is they use not the Latin, but Cyrillic alphabet, and absolutely no tone marks although thera are tones in the language. Dungan is a ...


3

Annoyingly, while everyone seems to say the Latin orthography is standardized, none seem to provide a clear explanation of it. I came across an article[*] which seemed promising, but on this matter says only that "all three script options [katakana, hiragana, Latin] have been standardized over the past 100 years". Several resources cite Kayano Shigeru no ...


3

The official system of Romanization of the Thai languiage is Royal Thai General System of Transcription (RTGS). All road signs, landmarks, and so on are to be transcribed according to RTGS. RTGS has certain pro's, likewise it uses a plain Latin alphabet, no tone marks, no vowel length marks, etc. And these are also con's (e.g. you can't read it properly ...


3

The purpose of a good romanization is to represent the phonemic distinctions of the language accurately, so that a native speaker who understands the romanization can get the same information from the romanized words as they would from those same words spoken aloud. For example, if English were just being romanized now (from some other writing system), the ...


3

Pinyin tosses out a lot of semantic information. Once Chinese characters are removed from the language, it becomes harder for Mandarin to coexist with different Chinese languages under the same umbrella. If I learned history right, the French used the Latin script to do that very thing: cut off the Vietnamese from the Chinese sphere of influence. Nowadays, ...


3

I suggest consulting A reference grammar of Modern Standard Arabic by Karin Ryding, which has a detail discussion of the script. Your conversion routine has to include some context-sensitive replacement. For example, alif is not per se the vowel a, it is a "chair" on which the vowel mark can reside. The other issue is that your source is somewhat at variance ...


3

There are a few major issues you're running into. None of them are unsolvable! But I'd recommend reading up more on the phonology and morphology of Arabic too; it'll help with some of these. First, certain Arabic letters can represent either vowels or consonants. The letter ي, for example, can be a long high front vowel /iː/ (often romanized ee) or a ...


2

Absolutely nothing to do with it. We say numbers the way we do in English because that's how they've developed in English. (Variants, such as ''three score'' or ''five and twenty'' exist, but are archaic). We say the number the same whether we write it in "Arabic" numerals, Roman numerals, or a tally. [Side comment: we quite often get questions here ...


2

A theoretical issue arises in Japanese, in that 箸 'chopsticks' and 橋 'bridge' are Romanized as hashi but have different pronunciations (the accent is on a different syllable), likewise 今 'now' and 居間 'living room' = ima; 牡蠣 'oyster', 垣 'fence', 柿 'persimmon'; 鮭 'salmon' = kaki, 酒 'alcohol' = sake. It may also be necessary to put the words in context to get a ...


2

This is the first time I've seen it, and it seems idiosyncratic. It appears to be a morphophonemic transcription based on Yale, as you can see from the way 못하지 is transcribed mos.ha.ci. Other similarities between this system and Yale are evident in the consonants, e.g. using <k, kk, kh> rather than <g/k, kk, k> for ㄱㄲㅋ. It follows most ...


1

The wikipedia page you link doesn't seem to show the form you see to me. Regardless, I suspect this is an issue of case بنو هاشم with a wāw is the nominative form of Banū Hāshim, and is used when the noun is the subject of the sentence بنی هاشم with a yāʼ is the accusative and genitive form, Banī Hāshim, and is used when the noun is the object of a verb, ...


1

As a general guideline, it depends how old the orthography is, and how much evidence we have about the language. There are very few ancient scripts that are completely accurate and unambiguous in representing the language's phonology. Sanskrit written in Devanāgarī is one of those very few exceptions, and even it has some quirks that have to be accounted for....


1

The phrase "one-hundred twenty-two" shows that you're using some decimal numbering system (because you're using 122=1×100+2×10+2×1 rather than e.g. 122=2×60+2×1). Arabic numerals are one kind of decimal numbering writing system. Roman numerals, too, are decimal or at least semi-decimal.


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