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20

Metathesis is common across languages, including in the varieties of Romance that emerged from Vulgar Latin. However, Western Romance had it more than Eastern Romance; within Western Romance, Iberian Romance appears to have had it more than Gallo-Romance. Consonant clusters involving a dental and /n/ and /l/ In Western Romance, many new clusters of /tn/ ...


11

It is not Spanish /l/ that "turns into" Italian /i/. It is that the Latin clusters pl-, bl-, fl- became /pj/, /bj/, /fj/ in Italian.


11

This is an example of metathesis, the rearranging of sounds or syllables in a word. It occurred in a number of words in the evolution from Latin to Spanish: Latin parabola > Old Spanish parabla > Spanish palabra 'word' Latin mīrāculum > Old Spanish miráclo > miraglo > Spanish milagro 'miracle' Latin pericŭlum > Old Spanish pericolo > periglo > Spanish ...


11

According to CRNTL1 and the RAE2: Proto-Germanic *steuraz + *burdą Old English stēorbord Middle English sterbord English starboard Classic Dutch stierboord (1588) Old French destribort (1550)9 / destribord (1677)7, 8 Old French destrebort (1484) (GARCIE, Le Grant routier, Rouen ds Fr. mod. t. 26 1958, p. 58) Old French estribord (1601)6 Early Modern ...


10

From this book in Asturian: D'una voz indíxena americana HURAKAN que'l cast. huracán fexo llegar al fr. ouragan y al it. uragano (REW s.v. hurakan). L'ast., lo mesmo que'l port. furacão, gall. furacán, cat. furacà, almiten el castellanismu orixinariamente aspiráu adautándolu con f- acordies col sistema fonolóxicu que desconocía l'aspiración d'aniciu, a nun ...


10

Spanish and Italian are both languages descended from Latin. As such, many of their words are cognate sharing a common Latin ancestor, but the sounds in these words evolved over time and evolved differently in each language. In Spanish, pl-, fl- and cl- generally became ll- (pronounced the same as Italian 'gl'): 6.3 Latin initial pl-, fl- and cl- ...


10

I think this question is confused Latin did have a perfect aspect, it was only available in the present, past, and future tenses (these verb forms are usually described as the perfect, pluperfect, and future perfect tenses respectively). This was a true perfect and not a perfective aspect in Classical Latin, that sense developed later as the Classical ...


10

Some of these words were re-loaned from Classical Latin after the change of Old Spanish /f/ to /h/ had stopped: compare loaned forma "shape" against inherited horma "mold" (as you mentioned in the question), loaned fácil "easy" against inherited hacer "do", loaned fatal "fatal" against inherited hado "...


9

No, it isn't. Spanish and Greek are both part of the Indogermanic language family and therefore historically connected. However, this historic connection is rather old, the split between proto-Greek and proto-Italic dates back at least 4000 years. The split is that old that there is no mutual intelligibility between Spanish and Greek left. In addition, ...


8

As jlawler says in his comment, what's really going on is that [s] has become [h] in certain positions. This is a pretty common type of sound change, which falls under the rubric of "debuccalization". Phonetically, what happens in this type of change is basically that the articulation becomes laxer, in that (in this case) the near-closure at the alveolar ...


8

The words utrom, morgen, mañana don't all derive from the same word in Proto-Indo-european, so that is why they are pronounced differently. As to why "morning" and "tomorrow" are sufficiently similar in semantics that they can be the same word, this is a reasonably common fact across languages (very common in Bantu, for example). If you're going to develop ...


8

Some forms of ser are cognate with "essence", but ser itself is not. Ser in Spanish is a "suppletive verb", which is missing some of its forms and has stolen them from other verbs to compensate. Compare English "go", which doesn't have the past-tense form *goed; instead, it's stolen the past form "went" from the ...


8

The map you have doesn't pass the sniff test for me. I don't imagine anyone realistically saying Catalonian being closer to Spanish than Galician. I can't speak for other Romance groups, but for Iberian languages, the chart on Wikipedia is in line with my experience (I speak Asturian, Castilian, and Portuguese, and regularly consume media in Galician and ...


8

sorry - no time to write, just posting a screenshot from Penny 2002:


7

The occurrence of the sound change [f] > [h] > ∅ in modern Spanish words does seem fairly unpredictable. I think this is a situation where dialect mixing and reborrowing/learned re-formation of words caused a lot of complications. Conditions of the sound change As far as I know, words that had the cluster /fr/ in Latin never exhibit this sound change. ...


7

The most obvious reason for the difference is that Spanish, like English, does not have geminate consonants (aside from occasional “fake” geminates that arise from the same consonant occurring on either side of a morpheme or word boundary). Consonants that were geminate in Latin were simplified to singletons in Spanish but not in Italian. Interestingly, ...


6

/f/ as [ϕ] in Andean, Palenquero, Caribbean, Puerto Rican Spanish The Linguistics of Spanish - Andean Spanish - 2. Pronunciation 2.4 Pronunciation of /f/ /f/ is commonly articulated as a voiceless bilabial fricative (symbol: [ɸ]): [ˈɸɾuta] fruta ‘fruit’ An epenthetic [w] is often inserted between [ɸ] and a following vowel: ...


6

Because home is not only a noun: it is also an adverb. This is not predictable: it just happens to be a fact about English.


6

To rephrase the first answer above: Spanish /x/ comes from earlier /ʃ/ by a process of backing. Old Spanish of the 1300's had the sounds /ʃ ṣ ts ʒ ẓ dz/ where /ṣ ẓ/ indicate apico-alveolar sibilants. By the 1400's this had become /ʃ ṣ s ʒ ẓ z/ with apico-alveolar /ṣ ẓ/ vs. lamino-dental /s z/ (similar to English). The sound /ṣ/ was quite similar to /ʃ/ on ...


6

Abbreviare to abréger is a very regular sound change, it went something along these lines. [a.bbre.vi.a:.re] > [a.bre.vja.re] > [a.brɛ.vɟær] > [a.brɛ.vɟʒier] > [a.bre.dʒier] > [a.bre.dʒie] > [a.bre.ʒe] Basically the key is desyllabification of [i] to [j] and then its fortition and assibilation to [dʒ]. The [v] preceding a consonant is lost regularly. In ...


6

As Draconis says, some conjugations of ser are cognate with Latin esse derived words in English, but not all. I made this chart (based on this blog post) a while ago, it details which are which: ^ Note for ve In voseo dialects, the 2nd person sing. pos. (vos) imperative for ir is andá (from Latin ambulare). This is cognate with Spanish andar, Catalan anar, ...


6

/ʝ/ vs. /ɟ/ Phonetically, there is a lot of variability in the realization of the Spanish sound that Wikipedia transcribes as /ʝ/, both between dialects, and in some cases between different utterances made by the same speaker; and there seems to be some unconditioned as well as conditioned allophony (see L2 perception of Spanish palatal variants across ...


6

The Grupo de Ingeniería Lingüística, part of the Universidad Nacional Autónoma de México has a WhatsApp corpus of undergraduate students. They have a paper that introduces it: http://www.aclweb.org/anthology/W18-3501. They have their own web-based corpus management tool http://www.corpus.unam.mx/geco/ but I don't see the WhatsApp corpus on there, so you ...


6

That answer on Spanish SE is misleading on key points - "neural networks" have nothing to do with dictionaries. Let's step back and imagine that we are tasked with creating bilingual dictionaries for many language pairs. To start, we have human-compiled ones, either from processing Wiktionary entries' Translations sections, or purchased from companies ...


5

These words are called doublets: In etymology, two or more words in the same language are called doublets or etymological twins (or possibly triplets, etc.) when they have different phonological forms but the same etymological root. — Wikipedia Yet another, more strict definition, is: Doublets are cognates within a single language The rest of your ...


5

Languages change, it's inevitable. Even an almost geographically isolated language will change: maybe in a limited way, or at a slower pace, but it will. Some changes are more visible and happen in a shorter time, like acquisition of vocabulary through loaning or calques, but other changes will take more time, like sound shifts and so on. However, I'm ...


5

The phonology of Spanish might be vaguely similar to that of Japanese but the differences are also relevant. There are many consonantal clusters in Spanish and also word final consonants, and this simply cannot be transcribed in kana. By the way, this represents one of the main difficulties for a Japanese speaker who speaks a European language like Spanish. ...


5

Québec, which originated as a French colony in North America, offers a very clear counterexample: it is well-known that speakers of Québécois French use tu in many more situations and much more readily than speakers of European French do. And when Québécois French speakers start with vous, they tend to shift to tu more quickly than a speaker of European ...


5

This is just a partial answer. I think metathesis is often explained in terms of perceptual similarities between the variants. Additionally, sometimes we can say that one form has a "preferred" phonotactic structure. But in general, metathesis is known to be a difficult thing to explain in terms of linguistic theory. The Spanish case is complicated because ...


5

The modern language Spanish does not have a significant "tendency" to moving segments (a process known as metathesis), but there are some historical cases of metathesis going historically from Latin or other older language stages to some branch of Romance (branches leading to Spanish). Some examples are caseo > queso 'cheese', catēnātum > candado 'padlock', ...


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