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15

Sanskrit, the Middle Indian languages, and most modern Indo-Aryan languages have a four-way distinction p~ph~b~bh. Punjabi has lost the bh-series (‘voiced aspirates’) and replaced it by a difference in tone, so it can be argued that Punjabi has only a three-way distinction p~ph~b (though it could also be argued that it has a four-way distinction at a ...


12

Definitely yes, only your phonetic notation is not very correct. Proto-Indo-European had such stops, Sanskrit and most Indian languages have them, too ([bʱ], [d̪ʱ], [gʱ], [dʒʱ], [ɖʱ]), the very name of India in Hindi, भारत [ˈbʱaːrət̪], has the [bʱ] sound, you can listen to the word here. Note, since the stops are voiced, so the aspiration is also voiced (...


11

Whispering excludes voicing from the linguistic inventory. Quite naturally, the decrease of the ability to comprehend a whispered speech depends on the language's original set of phonetic tools. Marc Ettlinger, linguistics PhD at Berkeley, shows that languages that intensively use voicedness and lexical tones are the most difficult to whisper in (from the ...


10

The phenomenon is known as "flapping", and the result, transcribed as [ɾ], is a "flap". It also applies to /d/, but people notice it most when applied to /t/ since the result is more different compared to /d/. You might call is a "fast d". If an American were to say [mɛtʰəl] very carefully, that could be called hyperarticulation, that is, aiming to stop a ...


9

I don't think it's a regional question. Mandarin b,d,g may often be realized with voicing, but the key distinction is aspirated vs. unaspirated. Here is a lab study of the voicing profiles of Mandarin and German. This comparison with German stops sums it up: “Phonologically, all Mandarin stop consonants are voiceless; /p,t,k/ are aspirated, /b,d,g/ are ...


8

Neither [h] nor [k] is "accurate" as a replacement for [x]: but there are some linguistic issues related to how [x] in a source language word appears in English, when the word is borrowed. The velar fricative is not a robust phoneme of English, but it does robustly exist for some speakers who pronounce the name Bach as [bax] (etc.). Phonetically it also ...


7

In general, yes--the F0 (fundamental frequency) of the voicing during a stop closure is going to be lower than that of the following vowel. The fact that there is a full closure in the oral tract (for non-nasal stops) means that there is nowhere for the air coming out of the lungs to escape, making it difficult to maintain a high velocity of air through the ...


7

Typically, when a person cannot hear a difference between a voiceless stop and a voiced stop, as pronounced according to IPA principles, that is because the voiceless stop is unaspirated, and the person listening is a speaker of English. In English, syllable-initial pre-stress /p,t,k/ are aspirated. Furthermore, voiced stops in that position are not fully ...


6

I think you might be conflating phonetic and phonemic voicing. If you are really talking about phonetic voicing, the answer is that it is quite common to find affricates that are only partially voiced. As @jlawler points out, the phoneme /dʒ/ in English is considered phonologically voiced, and it contrasts with /tʃ/. But phonetically, what is broadly ...


6

I think you're just hearing the lack of aspiration; English and German "t" is generally aspirated at the start of a syllable, while Spanish and Italian generally lack aspiration on voiceless plosives (but their voiced plosives start their voicing earlier). (For a more detailed comparison of English and Spanish plosives, see The Sounds of Spanish, by José ...


6

Well, yes and no. Vocal F0 range is mainly determined by the length and thickness of the vocal folds. Inasmuch as neck circumference correlates with the size of the vocal folds inside the neck, you could find a loose, indirect correlation between neck circumference and F0 range. For example, adults generally have thicker necks than children, and they ...


5

As for the voiced plosives you mentioned, that is b, g, d, and also affricates, such as j (as in jar, the unvoiced counterpart is ch in char)these are distinguished from their unvoiced counterparts by aspiration1 as well as voicing. Your brain doesn't notice since the entire segment stream is unvoiced, so the contrast is just as noticeable. And as for the ...


5

They are called allomorphs. It refers to phonological variations of a same morpheme. See the In English suffixes section of the given wikipedia article. It gives an example of the past tense morpheme -ed. The /t/-/d/ and /s/-/z/ distintion of your example is surely of different phonemes. Any English speaker will naturally "recognize" the difference.


5

It means that the phonetics of voicing, as observed in human languages, goes beyond just a two-way distinction between "vocal folds vibrating" vs. "vocal folds not vibrating". Voicing can maintained throughout a consonant constriction, or it can either die out or start up at some point within the consonant, and the non-voiced portions can ...


4

Just to give you some more data, by analyzing the UPSID, I have come up with the following list of languages that specifically have this three way contrast in stops, and no other phonation distinctions in stops (according to the UPSID data): BRUU BURMESE BURUSHASKI COFAN EPENA PEDEE ? GUAHIBO (has [p, b, t̪ʰ, t, d, k; also t͡s]; Note that [t̪ʰ] is ...


4

Certainly! Ancient Greek /r/ had an unvoiced allophone [r̥], which was written as rh in Latin transcriptions (see "rhino", "diarrhea"). Old Norse had phonemic /l̥ r̥ n̥/, which contrasted with /l r n/ in initial position. English used to have phonemic /w̥/, and some dialects still do: it's written "wh". A minimal pair is "wine" vs "whine". Mostly because ...


4

I don't think issue has been explored in a systematic way, and it's not clear how it could be. Theoretically, one might record human language contrasts like tal, thal, ttal uttered by a parrot (how do you decide that the parrot intended to utter tal versus thal?), and present them to human speakers of the language, to see if (without training) they correctly ...


4

There is no clear answer to the title question in general; it may depend on the sounds, or the language. (Well, unless you define "assimilation" in such a way as to explicitly refer to a process that changes one phoneme to another.) Examples like these are part of the reason why people have come up with concepts like "archiphonemes" (...


4

It is possible that you do lower the velum when you do this, and velum lowering is one of the methods that is used to alleviate the pressure buildup of voiced stops, but it is also possible that your feelings about what you are doing is wrong. You could be reacting to pressure against your velum and/or the acoustic consequences of acoustic transduction of ...


4

One factor is the individual: some individuals devoice more than others. Then you have to look at context, but additionally you have to be more specific about what you are measuring (and I should add that this is fundamentally a measurement question). The direct measurements are observable semi-periodic vibration during stop closure as well as periods of ...


4

This is just a subjective feeling that really depends on your native language or the languages you are used to speaking. Other languages are fine with this particular combination. For example, in my native Czech it is quite fine to have non-voiced + non-voiced st- or voiced + voiced zd-. But you cannot have zt-. You can write it, but due to voicing ...


3

Phonetically, the main theory I've heard is that voiced/voiceless/aspirated consonants are distinguished by voice onset time. VOT is the time delta between when the consonant stops and when the vocal folds start vibrating. If the VOT is positive, then there's a gap between the consonant ending and the vowel beginning. This is aspiration. If the VOT is ...


3

but I'm wondering if there are the same sort of voiced/voiceless distinctions for nasals / approximants / trills / flaps / affricates / vowels / etc. These exist, but they are rare because they're hard to distinguish audially or something. Languages that have any of the above as voiceless versions. Primarily [l̥], [ɹ̥], [n̥], [m̥], [ʁ̥], [ŋ̊], or any ...


3

I would add that, phonetically, voice is a matter of timing, more precisely of the VOT or Voice-Onset Time, which refers to the time when your vocal folds begin to vibrate with respect to the moment of release of the consonantal "blockage". Generally, there is a continuum of values, spanning from voiced consonants, having a negative VOT, to voiceless ...


3

There's no rule that says Mandarin unaspirated stops CAN'T be voiced. The point is that there are no minimal pairs between voiced and unvoiced unaspirated stops. The actual phonetic realization- in particular, the voice onset time- can and will vary by speaker, dialect, time, circumstance, etc.


3

The name Jacob is well-known among Jews, Christians and Muslims. In Iran this name is known in all communities in the Arabic/Qurʼanic form Yaʻqūb يعقوب but in Persian the Arabic letter q ق is pronounced as a fricative /γ/. The Arabic ʻ ع is silent in Persian.


3

The process that results in the oscillation of the vocal folds is actually somewhat complicated and may be tricky to grasp if you are "not good at physics", but let's give it a shot! A somewhat vague explanation is that, due to the way the shape of the vocal tract causes air to flow through the glottis and past the vocal folds, the fluid pressure (where a ...


3

I think the answer is, no, we cannot tell you. One reason is that there isn't just one thing "glottal stop". There is a dissertation Production and perception of glottal stops which covers the literature including the various different types of sounds involving glottal and ventricular adduction. Another reason is that longitudinal tension cannot be measured, ...


3

If you're producing nasals then you must be allowing your velum to drop. No fair. You have to find some way to enlarge the closed air cavity above your larynx. There are several ways to do this. One is to lower your larynx, as Catford suggests. Watch your throat in a mirror and you may be able to see your larynx bobbing downward, if you're doing this ...


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