User pablodf76

16 votes

Are Semitic and Indo-European languages at all related?

answered Jan 11, 2017 at 21:44

9 votes

Does the French R-sound come from Germanic influence?

answered Feb 12, 2017 at 2:28

9 votes

Origin of Present Perfect in Romance Languages

answered Apr 2, 2017 at 19:54

8 votes

Etymologically, why is there a v in "Giovanni"

answered Jan 15, 2017 at 0:39

6 votes

Accepted

Why do some languages have many names?

answered Sep 2, 2017 at 22:19

6 votes

Accepted

How do contronyms (aka auto-antonyms) arise?

answered Mar 1, 2017 at 12:40

6 votes

How does the description of the grammar of a language differ between a traditional and scientific approach?

answered Mar 15, 2017 at 1:50

6 votes

Why do phonemes such as /r/ and /ɾ/ evolve into uvular sounds like /ʀ/?

answered Nov 6, 2017 at 1:29

5 votes

Accepted

Term for the set of rules about where sounds can occur

answered Jan 9, 2017 at 10:07

3 votes

Accepted

Accusative or ergative language?

answered Jan 5, 2017 at 21:18

3 votes

Animal Species discrimination in languages

answered Feb 14, 2017 at 16:06

3 votes

Accepted

Can Egyptian hieroglyphs (or other hieroglyphs) be construed as having anything like Chinese radicals?

answered Feb 10, 2017 at 14:51

2 votes

English "fruit" vs Italian "frutta" plural number

answered Feb 28, 2017 at 14:12

2 votes

Term for borrowing an inflected form as an uninflected form

answered Jan 8, 2017 at 23:19

2 votes

Which epenthetic sounds are most common to separate vowels?

answered Mar 11, 2017 at 21:18

2 votes

Which languages conflate (imperfective) past and irrealis, and why?

answered Apr 22, 2017 at 22:32

1 vote

Accepted

Are clauses such as "¡Que le vaya bien!" in Spanish subordinate?

answered Mar 14, 2017 at 10:57

1 vote

To what extent can Japanese Kana be adapted to the Spanish language and be intelligible?

answered Apr 1, 2017 at 22:17

1 vote

Has there been cross-linguistic work on differential adjective-noun order?

answered Nov 16, 2017 at 1:48

0 votes

Why did English "man" and Latin "homo" take both the senses "gender-neutral human" and "male adult"?

answered Oct 25, 2017 at 12:48

0 votes

Spanish Stem Change

answered Jan 5, 2017 at 14:19

0 votes

Language Change over Distance

answered Jan 30, 2017 at 22:48

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22 Answers

Are Semitic and Indo-European languages at all related?

Does the French R-sound come from Germanic influence?

Origin of Present Perfect in Romance Languages

Etymologically, why is there a v in "Giovanni"

Why do some languages have many names?

How do contronyms (aka auto-antonyms) arise?

How does the description of the grammar of a language differ between a traditional and scientific approach?

Why do phonemes such as /r/ and /ɾ/ evolve into uvular sounds like /ʀ/?

Term for the set of rules about where sounds can occur

Accusative or ergative language?

Animal Species discrimination in languages

Can Egyptian hieroglyphs (or other hieroglyphs) be construed as having anything like Chinese radicals?

English "fruit" vs Italian "frutta" plural number

Term for borrowing an inflected form as an uninflected form

Which epenthetic sounds are most common to separate vowels?

Which languages conflate (imperfective) past and irrealis, and why?

Are clauses such as "¡Que le vaya bien!" in Spanish subordinate?

To what extent can Japanese Kana be adapted to the Spanish language and be intelligible?

Has there been cross-linguistic work on differential adjective-noun order?

Why did English "man" and Latin "homo" take both the senses "gender-neutral human" and "male adult"?

Spanish Stem Change

Language Change over Distance