Constantine Geist
  • Member for 4 years, 9 months
  • Last seen more than 3 years ago
Which languages conflate (imperfective) past and irrealis, and why?
5 votes

I suspect subjunctive merged with indicative in English simply due to phonetical reasons. Look at Old English: "I ate" (indicative) - Ic æt "I ate" (subjunctive) - Ic æte or "we beat" (...

View answer
Proto-Indo-European phonetic and pronunciation
Accepted answer
5 votes

It should also be noted that the point of those reconstructed phonemes is that they "oppose" each other. I.e. a string of reconstructed phonemes uniquely (more-less) identifies a word, say, domos in ...

View answer
What is the function of the soft sign (Ь) in Russian?
4 votes

From the point of view of the spelling, Ь simply means "the previous consonant should be palatalized". See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Palatalization_(phonetics) to learn what palatalization is, it'...

View answer
What is the reason for the double negation found in some languages?
1 votes

Interestingly, in Russian, we never call it "double negation" (at least I never heard it), although Russian is often listed in English-language sources as an example of a language with "double ...

View answer
Is there any language where verb inflection takes place word-initially?
1 votes

In Slavic languages, verbs have perfective/imperfective aspects, a core grammatical feature, and it's usually done via prefixing. For example, in Russian: delat "to do", sdelat "to have done"; kormit ...

View answer
On the phonetics of Russian ы
0 votes

I also want to add that Russian speakers in Ukraine often substitute [ɨ] with [ɪ], so if you can't master [ɨ], you can still use [ɪ] as well, you won't sound like a Russian from Russia, and you don't ...

View answer
Use of the definite article in "the Ukraine"
0 votes

In standard Russian, there's a similar phenomenon: the preposition "in" in the phrase "in Ukraine" is literally "on", unlike what's the case for most other modern European countries (preposition "in"),...

View answer