User FlatAssembler

7 votes

3 answers

1k views

Why is 't' sometimes pronounced like 'ch'?

asked Dec 23, 2017 at 10:38

7 votes

2 answers

522 views

Why is the Croatian word "vjetar" spelt with "je" rather than "e"?

asked Sep 4, 2021 at 21:05

5 votes

1 answer

334 views

How did Proto-Indo-European *septm evolve into English "seven"?

asked Dec 31, 2017 at 9:20

5 votes

2 answers

480 views

If the Armenian word for "foot", "otn", really comes from PIE *podm, why did the 'p' disappear?

asked Apr 21 at 21:57

3 votes

1 answer

353 views

Is the Indo-Austronesian Hypothesis an example of a pseudoscientific language comparison?

asked Dec 23, 2017 at 6:01

3 votes

2 answers

430 views

What causes relative frequency of consonants?

asked Apr 14, 2019 at 11:43

2 votes

0 answers

73 views

What argument did Paul Kretschmer use for Illyrian being a satem language?

asked Mar 19 at 19:23

2 votes

1 answer

199 views

What sound does the character 'u' in the Proto-Slavic word *bura (storm) represent?

asked Jun 2 at 15:43

1 vote

1 answer

113 views

Why is the Croatian word "pjena" (foam) spelt with "je" as if it were from Slavic yat, rather than "i", as it is from Slavic "y"?

asked Sep 11, 2021 at 17:13

1 vote

1 answer

172 views

Why aren't English "flame" and Croatian "plam" considered related?

asked Dec 12, 2020 at 19:25

1 vote

1 answer

328 views

Why did 'r' disappear in English "speak" (compare German "sprechen") and in German "Welt" (compare English "world")?

asked Mar 11, 2021 at 15:12

0 votes

0 answers

96 views

How is collision entropy of German syntax higher than of English one?

asked Oct 12, 2021 at 15:23

0 votes

2 answers

425 views

In Croatia, the first two consonants in river names are often 'k' and 'r', respectively. How to estimate the probability of that happening by chance?

asked Apr 26 at 15:10

-1 votes

1 answer

72 views

How it is that Proto-Finno-Ugric had the word meaning 100 (a borrowing from Indo-Iranian), but not the word for 10?

asked Jun 4 at 18:40

-1 votes

1 answer

279 views

Does deep orthography decrease the collision entropy of a written language?

asked Apr 18 at 20:10

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15 Questions

Why is 't' sometimes pronounced like 'ch'?

Why is the Croatian word "vjetar" spelt with "je" rather than "e"?

How did Proto-Indo-European *septm evolve into English "seven"?

If the Armenian word for "foot", "otn", really comes from PIE *podm, why did the 'p' disappear?

Is the Indo-Austronesian Hypothesis an example of a pseudoscientific language comparison?

What causes relative frequency of consonants?

What argument did Paul Kretschmer use for Illyrian being a satem language?

What sound does the character 'u' in the Proto-Slavic word *bura (storm) represent?

Why is the Croatian word "pjena" (foam) spelt with "je" as if it were from Slavic yat, rather than "i", as it is from Slavic "y"?

Why aren't English "flame" and Croatian "plam" considered related?

Why did 'r' disappear in English "speak" (compare German "sprechen") and in German "Welt" (compare English "world")?

How is collision entropy of German syntax higher than of English one?

In Croatia, the first two consonants in river names are often 'k' and 'r', respectively. How to estimate the probability of that happening by chance?

How it is that Proto-Finno-Ugric had the word meaning 100 (a borrowing from Indo-Iranian), but not the word for 10?

Does deep orthography decrease the collision entropy of a written language?