Timeline for r in Romance names of London
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
12 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Oct 6, 2016 at 14:28 | vote | accept | Quassnoi | ||
| Oct 6, 2016 at 13:40 | comment | added | Adam Bittlingmayer | I was not suggesting it as an explanation in this case, just answering your question. :-) | |
| Oct 6, 2016 at 10:49 | comment | added | Quassnoi | @A.M.Bittlingmayer it says intervocalic s becomes r in pre-Classical Latin, but there is no s in Londinium, and it seems by the time London was given its Latin name this process has long since been history anyway. | |
| Oct 6, 2016 at 8:59 | comment | added | Adam Bittlingmayer | Est. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… | |
| Aug 24, 2015 at 22:47 | answer | added | Lucian | timeline score: 1 | |
| Jul 10, 2015 at 21:04 | answer | added | brass tacks | timeline score: 14 | |
| Jul 10, 2015 at 20:04 | answer | added | fdb | timeline score: 3 | |
| Jul 10, 2015 at 13:13 | comment | added | Quassnoi | @sumelic: r in hombre looks promising. Is there any other Romance language where a similar thing would happen? | |
| Jul 10, 2015 at 12:33 | review | Close votes | |||
| Jul 14, 2015 at 8:26 | |||||
| Jul 10, 2015 at 11:43 | comment | added | Michaelyus | The Domesday Book (1086), written in the official Latin of the Norman Court, uses the phrasing Terra epi Lundoniensis. This shows that the Latin spelling was quite fixed well into the Middle Ages (and after, with no trace of -r- appearing. | |
| Jul 10, 2015 at 4:24 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/#!/StackLinguist/status/619361610180771840 | ||
| Jul 9, 2015 at 23:06 | history | asked | Quassnoi | CC BY-SA 3.0 |