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Oct 4, 2020 at 10:05 answer added Houssam Eddine timeline score: -4
S Nov 22, 2017 at 12:16 history suggested WiccanKarnak
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Nov 22, 2017 at 9:32 review Suggested edits
S Nov 22, 2017 at 12:16
Nov 8, 2017 at 0:51 review Close votes
Nov 13, 2017 at 14:48
Nov 6, 2017 at 17:41 comment added jlawler There's several problems here. It's likely that there was always somebody around anywhere populous in N. Africa who could speak any language involved in trade. The questions, for any language at any time, are: how many people spoke it, what dialect(s) did they speak, and what other languages/dialects did they speak? That gives you a picture of one generation; then do the next one, and the next, and you begin to get an idea. Lacking that kind of information, we can't tell what path words have taken to get where people speak them today.
Nov 6, 2017 at 15:02 comment added Mark Beadles FYI: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/African_Romance, though it's not the best article.
Nov 6, 2017 at 10:06 history tweeted twitter.com/StackLinguist/status/927477399482195969
Nov 6, 2017 at 8:32 answer added Adam Bittlingmayer timeline score: 14
Nov 6, 2017 at 1:07 comment added user6726 Alternatively, is it "why are there no written records of African Spoken Latin of the time"?
Nov 6, 2017 at 1:01 comment added user6726 Well, Berber was and is spoken; your question then is ? why didn't a Romance language supplant Berber?
Nov 6, 2017 at 0:47 comment added Cerberus Very interesting question, Thufir!
Nov 5, 2017 at 23:24 review First posts
Nov 6, 2017 at 3:00
Nov 5, 2017 at 23:21 history asked DeLissaplitz Anonymous CC BY-SA 3.0