Timeline for Where did the use of the two auxiliaries in the Romance languages come from?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Mar 3, 2018 at 9:39 | comment | added | Aharon M. Vertmont | @Noldorin, yes, that's right. Note that the lists of unaccusative verbs are language specific. | |
| Mar 3, 2018 at 0:49 | comment | added | Noldorin | Okay, thanks. I'm guessing unaccusative verbs are considered the classes of verbs that take the "to be" auxiliary in languages like Italian and French too? | |
| Mar 2, 2018 at 21:13 | history | edited | Mitch | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
link, grammar
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| Mar 2, 2018 at 19:23 | comment | added | Aharon M. Vertmont | @Noldorin yes, unaccusative and unergative verbs both constitute a class of intransitive verbs (the classification is based on what semantic role the subject of the corresponding sentence has). | |
| Mar 2, 2018 at 18:39 | comment | added | Noldorin | Are "unaccusative" verbs related to "intransitive" verbs somehow? | |
| Mar 2, 2018 at 12:29 | history | edited | Aharon M. Vertmont | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
deleted 1 character in body
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| Mar 2, 2018 at 10:25 | history | answered | Aharon M. Vertmont | CC BY-SA 3.0 |