Timeline for Is there a theory of word polysemy? Case of snake versus serpent
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
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| Feb 9, 2019 at 10:54 | comment | added | David Vogt | I think if there are two very similar words, it's quite likely that some difference between them will develop, because otherwise one of them would just be dropped. The sort of register difference you mentioned is a great example of that. (I can't help but think of terms for genitalia – they can be medical, colloquial, euphemistic, jocular, obscene, ...) On the other hand, there is always the distinction between denotation and connotation: Words like snake and serpent could be analyzed as sharing the former (when referring to reptiles), but not the latter. | |
| Feb 9, 2019 at 10:20 | comment | added | Stephane Rolland | I like this answer. However I would say there IS a difference between "snake" and "serpent" in English. 100% sure. I had been learning English in French schools for 12 years, and NOT EVEN ONE of my teachers ever used the word serpent whereas the only word transaltion for snake/serpent in French is "serpent". I think the polysemy in English comes the Anglo-Saxon term for snake and the Norman/Old French for "serpent". So in English you may have a difference in it: maybe it is a more "educated word", or a more scientific word, or a more litterature word. Do you agree? | |
| Feb 8, 2019 at 12:06 | history | answered | David Vogt | CC BY-SA 4.0 |