Timeline for Why did early Indo-European languages seem to be morphologically complex?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Jul 26, 2019 at 22:00 | comment | added | vectory | @Anixx Caucasian, Dravidian or the other language families that may have come into contact being very different may be an important preassure for simplification. This is already noted in the answer. | |
| Jun 11, 2014 at 15:48 | comment | added | Anixx | -1. PIE is very far from NE or NW Caucasian, but close to Uralic. It cannot be "Uralic influenced Cucasian" | |
| Jun 2, 2013 at 18:16 | comment | added | Daniel Briggs | @Anixx Please include an explanation or link to an explanation. And yes, the viability of hypotheses such as Kortlandt's, or Starostin's on Caucasian, can be difficult to evaluate since they go so far back. But it's better than having no hypothesis to discuss, which is IMO equally unuseful as having nothing to say. | |
| Nov 12, 2011 at 9:17 | history | edited | Otavio Macedo | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
Reformatted list and sublist
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| Oct 1, 2011 at 7:30 | vote | accept | Louis Rhys | ||
| Sep 20, 2011 at 16:06 | history | answered | Daniel Briggs | CC BY-SA 3.0 |