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Mar 14, 2020 at 17:17 comment added user27758 Don't want to be rude, but please phrase clearly!
Mar 14, 2020 at 17:15 comment added Vir ewawe, I am glad to have more folks joining the discussion. I wish I knew how to make the question less trouble to answer :) I think you have interpreted the flipside of my question, yes. My default assumption would have been that the indirect object case--for instance--didn't do direct objects. In several languages, it has to do direct objects for particular verbs. As a result you have to remember "inanmak takes the dative" (Turkish example). Is THAT, remembering which case complements each verb, the default for case languages?
Mar 14, 2020 at 17:11 comment added user27758 Sorry, once again I don't get what you mean. Please quote an example from your language and its translation.
Mar 14, 2020 at 17:06 comment added Vir Hi, thank you both for helping me clarify my question. The thoughtco article I linked above explains German's example; I will try its phrasing. "[There are] German verbs that take a 'direct' object in the dative case rather than the normal accusative case." It is clear to me that the major languages I know use cases also have some "verbs that take a direct object in [another] case rather than the normal [case]." My first question: is it the norm for languages with case to have direct objects vary their case for some of its verbs? I.e., would case languages normally need lists like above?
Mar 14, 2020 at 16:32 comment added Alex B. @Vir Are you asking about 1. when the same object (and having the same thematic role) can be used in more than one case with the same verb (i.e. competing cases) OR 2. when a verb can take more than one object - hence those objects have to be in different cases? (Technically, I should have used arguments (which are broader) instead of object but I'm not sure how much you know, so I tried to avoid specialized terminology.
Mar 14, 2020 at 16:31 history edited user27758 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 14, 2020 at 15:08 comment added user27758 Sorry, I don't get your point. As I wrote above, in different languages the same verb requires a different case.
Mar 14, 2020 at 15:05 comment added Vir I think so. Immediately above, I hit Enter not realizing it would post, then I edited. Concrete example: thoughtco.com/frequently-used-german-dative-verbs-4071410 Edit: did it again. German has a dative case. German need people to know which verbs' objects take dative. masterrussian.net/f15/… ussian has lists of which cases go with which verb. Suppose I take any given language that uses cases. Would I expect that normally I'd be able to make lists like the above for that language?
Mar 14, 2020 at 15:02 comment added user27758 Could you please make it clearer by quoting a concrete example?
Mar 14, 2020 at 15:00 comment added Vir Very good, I am glad for your input. If I might be clearer, I think I am not asking about the dative or other similar cases matching with the same verbs cross-linguistically. I am asking like, 1) if complements have multiple case options in a language, do complements usually use multiple options in that language? 2) if so, do they usually use all those available options? etc.
Mar 14, 2020 at 12:39 history edited user27758 CC BY-SA 4.0
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Mar 14, 2020 at 11:39 history answered user27758 CC BY-SA 4.0