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Oct 22, 2020 at 15:50 comment added vectory @jk-ReinstateMonica just browse Kroonens Dictionary for the 'NEUR' label (viz. Northern-European) attached to lemmas that only have comparands in Baltic (maybe Slavic too, IIRC). Although, Kroonen is not a source for the claim in question, and the introduction does not expound on the labels. Maybe I will find examples.
Oct 22, 2020 at 9:23 comment added Sir Cornflakes @Tristan An answer that illustrates some isoglosses that are insufficient to justify a node but sufficient to support the claim of closeness is an acceptable answer to me.
Oct 22, 2020 at 9:19 comment added Tristan @vectory I didn't say they had. I was addressing a weakness of my claim that in terms of lexical isoglosses, BS was closest to Germanic. That weakness being that lexical isoglosses are insufficient to conclusively demonstrate the existence of a node
Oct 21, 2020 at 17:14 comment added vectory @Tristan, "no such intermediate nodes (at a higher level than the usual Balto-Slavic, Indo-Iranian nodes at least) have been reconstructed to a sufficient extent to become consensus", that being said, the question is, how has anyone made such an argument that the linked answer implied. I think "higher level" is confusing; for clarity, one has to imagine trees growing downwards in your view, which is quite the apt metaphor, if you see it as lightning that comes from field-potential, branches eraticly as the wind blows, recombines and discharges into only few ground terminals.
Oct 19, 2020 at 13:16 comment added Sir Cornflakes @Lucian Those "out-of-India" theories are indeed annoying since they are driven by ideology and not by the scientific method.
Oct 19, 2020 at 3:41 comment added Lucian One of my best friends is Slavic; he usually employs my help in all things computer-related, including typing. I distinctly remember helping him out once with a thesis on Slavic history; one aspect he personally seems to have found particularly annoying was the fact that (at least) one of the works he employed in composing his gave a rather lengthy explanation as to Slavic languages being allegedly an offshoot of Indo-Aryan ones; as for Germanic ones, I don't recall them even being mentioned there at all; then again, my memory is far from perfect, and one authors' argument is not indisputable.
Oct 16, 2020 at 15:00 history tweeted twitter.com/StackLinguist/status/1317118119756898304
Oct 15, 2020 at 15:52 comment added Tristan obviously that's still not enough to establish a node conclusively (for which you'd need to do the proper comparative work of reconstructing the proto-form for that node's descendants), but afaik, with the possible exception of late-PIE (after Anatolian and maybe Tocharian split off), no such intermediate nodes (at a higher level than the usual Balto-Slavic, Indo-Iranian nodes at least) have been reconstructed to a sufficient extent to become consensus
Oct 15, 2020 at 15:35 comment added Tristan agreed. I was talking primarily about shared lexical isoglosses in the inherited vocabulary
Oct 15, 2020 at 15:26 comment added fdb @Tristan: Lexical "closeness" does not necessarily imply subgrouping. Their are lots of Germanic loan words in most Slavic languages.
Oct 15, 2020 at 9:15 comment added Tristan lexical considerations tend to put BS as closer to Germanic than anything else IIRC
Oct 14, 2020 at 22:45 comment added Janus Bahs Jacquet Excellent question. Balto-Slavic has never been my cup of tea, but even so, the only thing I can think of off the top of my head is the shared -m- (rather than -bh-) in the oblique dual/plural cases. I’m sure there are others, but they’re not coming to me at this hour…
Oct 14, 2020 at 21:38 history edited jlawler CC BY-SA 4.0
added 3 characters in body
Oct 14, 2020 at 21:34 history asked Sir Cornflakes CC BY-SA 4.0