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Jun 5, 2021 at 14:33 history edited Janus Bahs Jacquet CC BY-SA 4.0
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May 24, 2021 at 14:41 vote accept Nikkū
May 24, 2021 at 14:37 comment added Nikkū Tristan@ you are right sorry my mistake. I edited my question
May 24, 2021 at 9:03 comment added Tristan isn't the question asking about proving that Avestan isn't derived from Vedic, not vice versa? This answer seems to be backwards
May 23, 2021 at 19:33 comment added Alex B. @fdb well, of course, it is a matter of convention. That being said, I have seen both j or ǰ with a háček, but I have never come across ĵ with a circumflex, so I was curious who exactly uses/used this rather unconventional ĵ with a circumflex. But I'm not going to argue with you since Indo-Iranian is your forte, not mine (and it's good to see you back btw!)
May 23, 2021 at 17:45 comment added fdb @AlexB. Whether you write j or ǰ is purely a matter of convention. The standard Avestan grammar by Hoffmann/Forssman uses the former.
May 23, 2021 at 14:31 comment added Nikkū user6726@ how do we know Proto Indo-Aryan had ĵ ?
May 22, 2021 at 23:31 comment added Alex B. Whose reconstruction of PIA has this ĵ ? Typically it’s ǰ (with a háček), see e.g. Lubotsky 2018 degruyter.com/document/doi/10.1515/9783110542431-031/html
May 22, 2021 at 23:07 comment added user6726 Proto Indo-Aryan had ĵ, the reflex of the PIE palatal.
May 22, 2021 at 22:43 comment added Nikkū How do we know that PIE had a *ĵʰ, *ĵ, and earlier voiced palatal plus dental stop e.g. PIE *mr̥ǵt ? Or should i ask this as a separate question ?
May 22, 2021 at 19:47 vote accept Nikkū
May 24, 2021 at 14:41
May 22, 2021 at 19:36 history edited Yellow Sky CC BY-SA 4.0
spelling fixed
May 22, 2021 at 18:05 comment added Janus Bahs Jacquet What is *ĵ(ʰ) meant to be exactly? PIE has *g̑ (also written *ĝ or *ɡ́; PIA has *j́ and *ǰ (can’t type that properly on my phone, but háček should replace dot, not be above it). Neither has *ĵ in any transcription system I’m aware of.
May 22, 2021 at 15:51 history answered user6726 CC BY-SA 4.0