Timeline for Books on relationship between language and society / environment
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Mar 8, 2012 at 20:44 | history | edited | Alenanno |
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| Sep 28, 2011 at 2:47 | comment | added | Floating Tone | This question also presupposes that the language came before the 'society', if 'society' is taken to mean the organizational structure or social norms of a group of people. And it's very hard to go far back enough to know whether certain linguistic features arose before or after certain features of a society, unless you're lucky enough to have a lot of written records. Regardless, this question certainly is closely related to the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis, even if you're just trying to find evidence that the hypothesis is unfounded. | |
| Sep 24, 2011 at 16:39 | answer | added | CesarGon | timeline score: 5 | |
| Sep 22, 2011 at 19:50 | comment | added | Phira | I don't think that the examples I mentioned have anything to do with the Sapir-Whorf thesis, and the general question might well have as answer a book that explains why there is no influence from language on society. | |
| Sep 22, 2011 at 15:12 | comment | added | JoFrhwld | Your question presupposes that: 1) there is a connection between the quality of a society and the quality of its language, and 2) this connection is also non-arbitrary. These assumptions could fall under the rubric of "The Sapir-Whorf" hypothesis, or Neo-Whorfianism, which are both rather controversial and disfavored by modern linguists/psychologists. | |
| Sep 22, 2011 at 11:18 | history | asked | Phira | CC BY-SA 3.0 |