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Sep 26, 2023 at 12:30 comment added fdb @HolyKnowing. " but for languages where careful research has been undertaken, gender is always predictable from a set of assignment rules, for at least 85% of the noun inventory ". This is manifestly wrong.
Sep 26, 2023 at 3:39 comment added Wtrmute Note that things do not have genders, nouns do. For example, what is the gender of “stone” in Latin? It depends on whether you call it lapis (masculine), rupes (feminine) or saxum (neuter).
Sep 25, 2023 at 5:21 comment added CosmicGenis Source that for every language if said language grammatical gender on nouns then it also has well-defined and not very large rules for gender assignment: wals.info/chapter/32
Sep 25, 2023 at 2:53 comment added CosmicGenis According to the WALS, every language with grammatical gender has very well-defined rules for determining the gender of a noun, and the rules are not very large (so nothing like Risch's Algorithm involved).
Sep 25, 2023 at 1:40 comment added jlawler German has three genders and native speakers are significantly more likely to agree on what the gender of nonsense words would be (or is, if you prefer -- gender is a slippery business and so is modality).
Sep 24, 2023 at 21:11 answer added user6726 timeline score: 2
Sep 24, 2023 at 11:51 comment added Janus Bahs Jacquet This is actually quite a good question. In many cases, morphological clues help (e.g., words ending in -o being masculine and those in -a feminine in Spanish); other times, especially with loanwords, an existing native equivalent provides a hint (perhaps Betelgeuse is masculine because the Hindi words for ‘star’ are masculine); or sometimes one gender is just generally the default. But sometimes, even though there doesn’t seem to be anything specific in favour of any particular gender for a new (or even fictitious) word, native speakers will overwhelmingly agree on one.
S Sep 24, 2023 at 8:46 review First questions
Sep 24, 2023 at 15:11
S Sep 24, 2023 at 8:46 history asked VVidyan CC BY-SA 4.0