Timeline for Verification of R. Dixon's bound/free split prediction
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Jul 9 at 21:09 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | Oh, that makes more sense – I read the entire question as being limited to only pronouns and couldn’t quite grasp the meaning. | |
| Jul 9 at 20:54 | comment | added | Shpekard | @JanusBahsJacquet, Bound forms - personal affixes, free forms - nouns (pronouns are not necessarily included as there may be a split between nouns and pronouns). I googled a bit and found out a language called Guajajara. It has a split within verbal agreement (among other observable splits elsewhere). | |
| Jul 9 at 13:42 | comment | added | Janus Bahs Jacquet | What exactly does he mean by “a split between bound and free forms” here? Is he talking about standalone pronouns vs personal inflectional affixes? | |
| Jul 9 at 12:19 | history | edited | Shpekard | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| Jul 9 at 12:19 | comment | added | Shpekard | @GastonÜmlaut, yes, it shoud | |
| Jul 6 at 1:55 | comment | added | Gaston Ümlaut | Shouldn't your first 'latter' should be 'former' | |
| Jun 30 at 17:39 | history | asked | Shpekard | CC BY-SA 4.0 |