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Dec 22, 2019 at 10:37 history edited hippietrail
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Nov 19, 2019 at 11:18 comment added cipricus The only sense I can make of that "relation" is this: the ancient Balkan (Dacian-Thracian) substratum language that influenced Romanian (also Albanian and maybe Macedonian and Bulgarian) is a completely unknown language. Lacking any knowledge about that, a relation that can be imagined at that level is that with the Baltic languages (beside that, with the Iranian languages north of the Black Sea, with Armenian, Phrygian). But that amounts to a few words, nothing to do to mutual ineligibility of present languages.
Mar 4, 2014 at 18:01 history edited hippietrail
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Mar 4, 2014 at 18:01 comment added hippietrail What you probably heard is that they are both "ancient" or "haven't changed" or that they're" conservative. In the case of Romanian that's largely an assumption based on the fact it's the "only" Romance language retaining three genders and a case system like Latin. In reality at least its case system can be analysed in other ways. Lithuanian on the other hand could even be more conservative than Latin itself ... So yes they're related but no they're not close at all. Perhaps as mutually intelligible as English and Albanian.
Mar 2, 2014 at 19:22 comment added jlawler Moral: Don't believe everything you hear about language. In fact, don't believe anything you hear about language. Check the facts, because there is a great deal of BS about language out there.
Mar 2, 2014 at 6:58 answer added TKR timeline score: 19
Mar 2, 2014 at 5:43 review First posts
Apr 1, 2014 at 5:27
Mar 2, 2014 at 5:26 history asked user3245 CC BY-SA 3.0