Timeline for Where did the use of the two auxiliaries in the Romance languages come from?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
7 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Mar 2, 2018 at 10:25 | answer | added | Aharon M. Vertmont | timeline score: 1 | |
| Feb 28, 2018 at 12:22 | comment | added | Atamiri | As for why there are two of them, look at transitivity. Historically transitive verbs formed the habeo-perfect and intransitive verbs the sum-perfect which is quite logical because you would tend to say "I have a book written" (habeo) but "I'm the one who came" (sum). But as the construction spread it got grammaticalised. In Macedonian, for example (which was strongly influenced Latin), it's now grammatical to say имам одено (I have gone, habeo) and сум јаден (I've eaten, sum, literally "I'm eaten"). The two auxiliaries just got mixed. | |
| Feb 27, 2018 at 20:32 | answer | added | Atamiri | timeline score: 3 | |
| Feb 27, 2018 at 11:33 | answer | added | Sir Cornflakes | timeline score: 8 | |
| Feb 27, 2018 at 4:18 | history | tweeted | twitter.com/StackLinguist/status/968339629932994560 | ||
| Feb 26, 2018 at 22:58 | history | edited | Noldorin | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
added 38 characters in body
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| Feb 26, 2018 at 22:28 | history | asked | Noldorin | CC BY-SA 3.0 |