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Jul 13, 2023 at 3:08 history bumped CommunityBot This question has answers that may be good or bad; the system has marked it active so that they can be reviewed.
Jun 13, 2023 at 2:09 answer added earlyinthemorning timeline score: 1
Jun 2, 2023 at 20:01 comment added Janus Bahs Jacquet Also note that the same observation goes for ⟨b/p⟩, ⟨d/t⟩, ⟨g/c~k⟩, etc. All ‘voiced’ stops and affricates in English are frequently realised as unvoiced, as in Mandarin, and you can certainly analyse them as being phonemically /p t k/ vs aspirated /pʰ tʰ kʰ/. The primary reason this is not usually done is that they are normally voiced postvocalically, where they also serve to lengthen the preceding vowel. Initial devoicing is a simpler process than non-initial voicing + subsequent vowel lengthening.
Jun 2, 2023 at 19:57 comment added Janus Bahs Jacquet The question is somewhat unclearly asked, since it conflates phonemic and phonetic values, but regardless of the exact interpretation, I think it would be hard to answer anything but yes to the main question: it is very common in all Englishes for ⟨j⟩ to be pronounced [tʃ] and ⟨ch⟩ as [tʃʰ], and it would also be perfectly possible to analyse the data in a way that these sounds correspond to phonemes denoted /tʃ/ and /tʃʰ/. Whether the former is dialect-dependent (the latter definitely is not) is a better question, to which I don’t know the answer.
Jun 2, 2023 at 16:54 comment added user6726 /tʃ/ and /tʃʰ/ are analyses, [tʃ] and [tʃʰ] are realizations.
Jun 2, 2023 at 16:49 comment added Nardog This is largely a matter of analysis rather than about dialectal variation.
Jun 2, 2023 at 16:48 history edited Nardog CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 2, 2023 at 16:40 comment added Graham H. I think this aspiration is especially noticeable and relevant in onset clusters where the /tʃ/ is followed by an approximant, which can become fully or partially devoiced. I still wouldn’t call that a phonemic phenomenon.
Jun 2, 2023 at 12:37 history edited Tristan CC BY-SA 4.0
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Jun 2, 2023 at 4:56 review Close votes
Jun 15, 2023 at 3:03
Jun 2, 2023 at 2:38 comment added TKR Did you mean "phonemic" in the title?
Jun 2, 2023 at 2:15 comment added jlawler Sure. That happens. But it's probly not a dialectal form with a local speech group; it's more likely to be an individual variation in somebody's speech. Individual variation is much broader than areal phenomena.
S Jun 2, 2023 at 2:05 review First questions
Jun 2, 2023 at 6:48
S Jun 2, 2023 at 2:05 history asked Adam L. CC BY-SA 4.0