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1 vote
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Is there a rule when the use of the definite article on proper nouns is appropriate in Semitic languages?

As far as I understand, according to the conventional grammar of Hebrew (and likely other Semitic languages), the definite article is typically only be attached to common nouns, but not to proper ...
Reb Chaim HaQoton's user avatar
8 votes
2 answers
1k views

What does Eastern Aramaic have to say about "(definite) articles are acquired, not lost"?

The current answers on Definite/indefinite articles vs. inflections agree that (definite) articles are acquired by languages, not lost. I'm wondering what Eastern Aramaic has to say about this. ...
Keelan's user avatar
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