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I emended grammar, orthography, and syntax.
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edit approved Nov 29, 2015 at 13:25
user5306
edit approved Nov 29, 2015 at 13:25
user5306

What is the origin of nonNon-natural grammatical genders in Indo-European languages? (assuming that there is a single origin, if there are many, what are they) How and for what purpose did it develop?:

  1. What is their origin (assuming that there is a single origin, if there are many origins)? Or what are the origins?

  2. How and for what purpose did they develop?

At a glance, there doesn't seem to be a point in differentiating the inflection for adjectives and verbs related to the moon and the sun, for example.

What is the origin of non-natural grammatical genders in Indo-European languages? (assuming that there is a single origin, if there are many, what are they) How and for what purpose did it develop? At a glance, there doesn't seem to be a point in differentiating the inflection for adjectives and verbs related to the moon and the sun, for example.

Non-natural grammatical genders in Indo-European languages:

  1. What is their origin (assuming that there is a single origin, if there are many origins)? Or what are the origins?

  2. How and for what purpose did they develop?

At a glance, there doesn't seem to be a point in differentiating the inflection for adjectives and verbs related to the moon and the sun, for example.

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Louis Rhys
Louis Rhys
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What is the origin of non-natural grammatical genders in Indo-European languages? (assuming that there is a single origin, if there are many, what are they) Why was How and for what purpose did it inventeddevelop? At a glance, there doesn't seem to be a point in differentiating the inflection for adjectives and verbs related to the moon and the sun, for example.

What is the origin of non-natural grammatical genders in Indo-European languages? (assuming that there is a single origin, if there are many, what are they) Why was it invented? At a glance, there doesn't seem to be a point in differentiating the inflection for adjectives and verbs related to the moon and the sun, for example.

What is the origin of non-natural grammatical genders in Indo-European languages? (assuming that there is a single origin, if there are many, what are they) How and for what purpose did it develop? At a glance, there doesn't seem to be a point in differentiating the inflection for adjectives and verbs related to the moon and the sun, for example.

Source Link
Louis Rhys
Louis Rhys
  • 8.6k
  • 6
  • 47
  • 72

What is the origin of non-natural grammatical genders in Indo-European languages?

What is the origin of non-natural grammatical genders in Indo-European languages? (assuming that there is a single origin, if there are many, what are they) Why was it invented? At a glance, there doesn't seem to be a point in differentiating the inflection for adjectives and verbs related to the moon and the sun, for example.