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Questions tagged [inflection]

The patterns of changing endings in inflecting languages which cover multiple properties of a word such as tense, mood, person, number, case, etc. This general term covers conjugation of verbs and declension of nouns and adjectives.

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Do any languages have inflection tables with 7 or more attributes?

Here is some examples I collected, where the number indicates how many attributes are in the inflection table headers: 1. past participle = astiqué + /as.ti.ke/ 2. present participle, simple/compound =...
Lance Pollard's user avatar
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Patterns of inflection for Italian natives in natural conversations and whether they're common in other languages

When speaking with Italian natives in both English and Italian, I've noticed that they tend to place a considerable amount of stress on every other word in a sentence (barring words like oh, ah, etc. ...
Paolo Mancini's user avatar
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Why is it to distinguish inflection in the two cases by conjugation and declension?

Inflection for verbs is called conjugation, and for nouns, pronouns and adjectives are called declension. Why are "conjugation" and "declension" in use when "inflection" ...
Tim's user avatar
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Errors of inflection in languages other than English -- more common or less common in very inflected languages?

Note: While a question similar has been suggested and the replies indicate that even uneducated Russians do not make mistakes as even educated English speakers tend to, I am firstly not convinced this ...
releseabe's user avatar
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What are examples covering the spectrum of possibilities of inflection types across languages?

I am currently looking at Turkish adjective intensification where they are formed by adding a letter in the middle of the word, according to some rules (after first consonant + vowel): siyah ("...
Lance Pollard's user avatar
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Rules for inflecting Tibetan nouns and verbs?

The internet is scarce in Tibetan grammar, this being the best I can find. It says there are 6 noun cases, and gives the pattern for inflecting the base noun, it seems. Is that all that is required ...
Lance Pollard's user avatar
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5 answers
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Does there exist a pair of words with the same parts of speech, same base form, but different inflections?

I will attempt to illustrate my question via example. Let's say we have two verbs which are homonyms of eachother: "fleeber" and "fleeber". The first means "to create a soft ...
Bunny's user avatar
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Do modal auxiliaries in English never change their forms?

Anderson's Essentials of Linguistics says that in English: The modal auxiliaries never change their form: they occupy the T- head position in their own right. The non-modal auxiliaries, like main ...
Tim's user avatar
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Multiple plurals per inflectional paradigm slot (Arabic)

Lexemes are generally associated with inflectional paradigms; let us take a nominal for the purpose of this discussion, and more specifically an Arabic nominal. Let's say that we are dealing with a ...
chriscay's user avatar
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Are inflectional morphemes considered affixes in English?

From what I remember to have learned in SPANISH, which is my mother tongue, affixes just refer to derivational morphemes such as suffixes and prefixes which can change the meaning of words when added ...
Irene Domingo's user avatar
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Is it pure coincidence that English makes plurals with -s, like in French and Spanish?

It is known that the plural -s suffix in English has Germanic origins, and is not a feature imported from French. However, to what extent does the use of -s for plurals in English have to do with ...
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Why are comparative -er and -est suffixes considered inflections not derivations?

In e.g. English, why do we say that better and best are inflections of "good" and not derivations of "good"? Why is tastiest commonly understood as an inflection and not a ...
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Inherent inflection vs. Contextual inflection

dear community! In morphology, there is this concept of inherent inflection vs. contextual inflection, which is mainly associated with the Dutch morphologist Geert Booij. In the case of inherent ...
Chris's user avatar
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In the IPA transcription do I need to show the global fall/rise before or after the stressed syllable?

I put the global fall symbol (down arrow) after the stressed syllable because it makes more sense to me. The last content word in a though group is where final inflection usually occurs, the syllable ...
Zoltan King's user avatar
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Are there any inflectional languages that have less ambiguous endings than Latin?

Latin has many ambiguous endings. For example, in Latin, -is can be the ending for: First and second declension Ablative and Dative Plural of any gender. Third declension Genitive Singular. Third ...
user36857's user avatar
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Understanding "inflection" and "grammatical category"

The Wikipedia article Morphology says: A further difference is that in word formation, the resultant word may differ from its source word's grammatical category whereas in the process of inflection ...
iBug's user avatar
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Are different inflectional forms of a word different words or the same word?

At some point, I gained the notion that inflections of a word didn't constitute different words, but rather different forms of the same word. This Wikipedia article however, says the process of ...
A. Kvåle's user avatar
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Languages with definite and indefinite conjugation

Apart from Hungarian, are there any other languages with definite and indefinite conjugation (verbal inflections)? For example (in Hugarian): Definite conjugation: I see the tree. – Látom a fát. ...
Zoman's user avatar
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In English the suffix sometimes changes the stress pattern of the rest of the word. Is English the only language with this system?

TELephone, telePHONic, teLEphony. PHOTograph, photoGRAphic,photOgraphy. biOLogy, bioLOGical. The suffix changes the stress pattern of the rest of the word. Is English the only language with this ...
Matthew Christopher Bartsh's user avatar
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Does "this" and "these" belong to the same lexeme?

I am confused as to whether "this" and "these" belong to the same lexeme
Luna's user avatar
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How do Agglutinative Features/Languages develop out of Fusional Features/Languages?

Does anyone know about the development of agglutinative languages out of fusional languages, or, more precisely, agglutinative features out of fusional features? I am thinking in particular about the ...
Paul's user avatar
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What would be the collective noun for collection of words whose affixal markers indicate the same grammatical categories?

I am working on Sanskrit, a fusional language. I am confused about what should be the collective noun that I should be used to address the set {nominals, verb, adverb, indeclinable, participle}. Could ...
Amrith Krishna's user avatar
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inflected languages other than IE and Semitic ones

When one looks for examples of inflected languages outside the Indo-European and, perhaps, Semitic domains, it seems that there is none. Does anyone here know other examples in different linguistic ...
Artemij Keidan's user avatar
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What are the main types of inflection that can be found in the languages of the world? [closed]

What are the main types of inflection that can be found in the languages of the world? If you can, define them and give an example for each of them please. Thank you!
Mert M. Ural's user avatar
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Could have inflected Proto-Slavic really 'been created' as a lingua franca among some Slavs and many agglutinative, Turkic languages-speaking peoples?

In my experience, it seems to be that people learning as a second language one that is significantly more inflected that their mother tongue(s) experience serious difficulties and tend to avoid ...
AmazingWouldBeGreatBut's user avatar
1 vote
3 answers
640 views

Definite/indefinite articles vs. inflections

While some languages have definite/indefinite articles (a/an/the in English, le/la/les and un/une/des in French), others don't (Russian, Latin). In this connection I have a few questions: Chicken or ...
Roger V.'s user avatar
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Do Modern Grammar Theories fall short in explaining Free Word Order?

Here's my childish challenge to generative grammar: Could anyone give me an analysis of Russian sentence Мама мыла раму. (Mom washed the (window) frame.) from the point of view of modern grammar ...
Roger V.'s user avatar
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3 votes
1 answer
655 views

How did Latin drop noun declension?

Latin has/had noun cases, while modern Romance languages don't. I wonder if the transition can be observed in written forms. Are there examples from different historic moments? A side question: ...
culebrón's user avatar
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Are there languages with verb tenses, but no conjugation?

More specifically, what I'm looking for is this: verbs have no conjugation or inflection; the only form is the infinitive. The language does have verb tenses, (past, present, future, conditional, etc),...
adashrod's user avatar
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what are the various properties that inflection indicates in words in various languages?

Whereas some types of inflection are common, such as gender, plurality, tense, etc., many languages are known to possess a very rich set of inflection semantics and/or agreement inflection features. ...
matanox's user avatar
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2 answers
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Are there languages that inflect adverbs for gender

Triggered by this answer, I am curious: Are there languages that inflect adverbs for gender or noun class? I have consulted the following two questions but the given inflections of adverbs in their ...
Sir Cornflakes's user avatar
3 votes
2 answers
194 views

Combining pro-drop with null morphemes

Some languages combine pro-drop with null or zero morphemes – inflectional morphemes, more particularly. Turkish is an example of this. To illustrate, the verb istemek = to want is inflected as ...
MarkOxford's user avatar
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4 answers
2k views

Is it possible to have a word-based language completely without word inflection?

First, sorry if I'm not using the correct terminology here. By "word-based", I mean typical Indo-European languages (plus Uralic) where there are only tens of characters (e.g. "A to Z" (Latin) or "А ...
iBug's user avatar
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7 votes
1 answer
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How did the complexities of Arabic cardinals arise?

Generally the grammar related to the numbers in Arabic is considered to be the most complicated thing about the language. In fact, it is considered so complicated that many teachers argue that not ...
gen-ℤ ready to perish's user avatar
14 votes
2 answers
2k views

Are there any languages which inflect the noun for morphosyntactic categories normally reserved for verbs (e.g. tense, aspect, etc.)?

In English (for example), we say "I go/went/was going/etc.", inflecting the verb for tense and aspect while leaving the subject of the sentence unchanged. But are there any languages that would ...
ubadub's user avatar
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1 answer
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Noun inflection in which IE language is close to PIE noun inflection?

Which modern IE language is most conservative in noun inflection and in this aspect is most similar language to PIE?
Houman's user avatar
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1 answer
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Example of language with lots of agglutination/fusion/inflection without a lot of regularity

Wondering what a good example language is where, when you combine "prefixes" or "suffixes" to a base, it (a) changes the phonetic form of the word in certain places, and (b) this specific pattern only ...
Lance Pollard's user avatar
1 vote
0 answers
176 views

Does "to" correspond to verb inflection in X-bar theory?

In this Government & Binding Theory book I'm reading, it is assumed that "to" in to-infinitives corresponds to verb inflection, meaning that in x-bar tree "to" appears under INFL, exactly where ...
Puzzled's user avatar
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4 votes
2 answers
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Languages w/out morphology

Is there a natural language w/ no morphology (i.e. one that has neither inflectional nor derivational morphology -- in other words, no affixation whatsoever)? I've heard claims to the effect, but the (...
jaam's user avatar
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0 votes
2 answers
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What does one call a similar inflections of a root with different morphological classes as?

In a morphologically rich language, it is quite common that a root might have multiple inflections, each representing a different morphological class. Here multiple inflected word forms of a root ...
Amrith Krishna's user avatar
3 votes
1 answer
250 views

Do case endings really make sentences shorter?

In the Language Construction Kit, Mark Rosenfelder makes the claim that case endings 'makes things compact and frees up word order'. The latter is pretty obvious, but do case endings really make ...
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3 votes
2 answers
113 views

Is there a language where in declension number is affixed peripherally to case?

Is there a language where, given that number and case are affixed seperately not fusionally, a noun can have the structure of , e.g. ithawen = itha-w-en [woman]+GEN+PL ("of the women, the women's")? I ...
Abas's user avatar
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1 answer
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Is there a language in which personal suffix precedes the temporal suffix in conjugation?

A fictional example: zelun (zel- (verb stem: "to make leather") + u (personal suffix, 3rd person sg.) + n (temporal suffix, present)) vs. zelud (u (3rd sg.) + d (preterite)) zelun = "He/She/It is ...
Abas's user avatar
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1 vote
1 answer
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Terminology: types of inflection and features

Happy New Year, everyone! I am reading an article by G.Corbett on canonical morphosyntactic features. He mentiones two kinds of inflection: inherent and contextual. These notions look to me somewhat ...
Aharon M. Vertmont 's user avatar
9 votes
1 answer
434 views

Are there languages in which adverbs inflect?

Are there any languages in which adverbs (in the sense of verb modifiers) inflect to match the verb they modify?
aimalanos's user avatar
8 votes
1 answer
399 views

Are the inflectional endings in English known to have evolved from separate words or do they go too far back into PIE to know?

English isn't a highly inflected language, but it did evolve from one and still has at least: -s, -es; -ed, -ing; -er, -est; for nouns, verbs, and adjectives. Do we know if these all evolved from ...
hippietrail's user avatar
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Were/are there any languages that decline(d) articles but not nouns?

This question is actually spawned from a rather embarrassing personal blunder years ago, that was that when I had first begun to learning an heavily inflected language, I had made the mistake of ...
Matthew T. Scarbrough's user avatar
7 votes
3 answers
2k views

Examples of Umlaut in a living language

For a teaching material I needed a good example of vocalic mutation of the root, aka Umlaut, and I got stuck at the fact that, while the Umlaut is often postulated for some reconstructed languages, ...
Artemij Keidan's user avatar
5 votes
1 answer
405 views

Does plural count as a grammatical gender?

Depending on the language, gender inflection can arise from natural gender, or even perhaps as a way of simplifying an extremely complex inflection system, but regardless, grammatical gender is a just ...
Matthew T. Scarbrough's user avatar
8 votes
2 answers
2k views

Are fusional languages easier to learn than isolating languages?

As some of you may know, auxlangers tend towards isolating languages. At the very least, the direct object is determined by word order rather than with a case ending (mostly because most West ...
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