I'm looking for a reference to the claim that negative comparative operators like "less" are cross-linguistically rarer than their positive counterparts.
Is anyone familiar with this claim, and able to provide a reference? Thanks in advance for any assistance.
EDIT: This question is specifically about the "morphosyntactic inventories" of the world's languages -- are negative comparative operators (e.g. "less") more marked than positive ones. In saying this, I intend to distinguish my question from questions about whether speakers tend to avoid negative comparisons in preference of positive ones (e.g. avoiding "X is shorter than Y" in favor of "Y is taller than X").