Latin has/had noun cases, while modern Romance languages don't. I wonder if the transition can be observed in written forms. Are there examples from different historic moments?

A side question: unlike English and German, (as far as I know) all Romance languages seem to have dropped noun inflexion all together. So, did this happen early, before divergence?

Latin has/had noun cases, while modern Romance languages don't. I wonder if the transition can be observed in written forms. Are there examples from different historic moments?

A side question: unlike English and German, (as far as I know) all Romance languages seem to have dropped noun declension all together. So, did this happen early, before divergence?

Latin has/had noun cases, while modern Romance languages don't. I wonder if the transition can be observed in written forms. Are there examples from different historic moments?

A side question: unlike English and German, all Romance languages seem to have dropped noun inflexion all together. So, did this happen early, before divergence?

Latin has/had noun cases, while modern Romance languages don't. I wonder if the transition can be observed in written forms. Are there examples from different historic moments?

A side question: unlike English and German, (as far as I know) all Romance languages seem to have dropped noun inflexion all together. So, did this happen early, before divergence?