I've recently started reading more about ergative languages, such as Basque.
I understand that cases in ergative languages differ from nominal-accusative languages.
For example, a sentence like "I go" would be "Me go", because the subject is the patient.
Unfortunately, I fail to understand certain things I read on the wikipedia page on ergativity (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Ergative%E2%80%93absolutive_alignment).
The following sentence is given as an example for a possible sentence in an ergative language (with English lexicon of course):
Him smiles. (He smiles)
I was wondering: Is the subject of this sentence really a patient? Or is the absolutive case just assigned to the subject of intransive verbs in general?
I was taught in a course that verbs with a patient subject are telic, but "to smile" is not really telic, in my opinion. From my understanding, not all subjects of intransitive verbs are patients.
For example, in Italian a verb like "lavorare" (to work) is indeed intransitive, but the subject is not considered to be a patient but an agent.
Does the subject of ergative languages undergo V to T movement? I was taught that the subject in Italian or English moves to SpecT in order to receive the nominative case and share its phi-features with the verb. It seems to me that the very existence of ergative languages is enough to challenge this kind of idea. And can a passive be built out of a ditransitive verb then? I'm thinking about Burzio's generalization:
A verb form that does not express an agent argument in the specifier position cannot check objective case.
I hope this was somewhat understandable. Thanks for anyone's help.