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Are there any languages in which adverbs (in the sense of verb modifiers) inflect to match the verb they modify?

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  • Presumably with respect to tense in the broad sense: agreement with a subject or object that the verb agrees with would presumably be agreement with the subject or object, not the verb. But maybe subject-agreement would have to be mediated through the verb, in some theory? – user6726 Jan 2 '18 at 2:48
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    Similar: Does any language conjugate adverbs? But the answer there doesn't have the element of agreement that you seem to be looking for – sumelic Jan 2 '18 at 6:04
  • In my opinion it does not count but a naive observer might conclude that something like that is happening with внутрь vs внутри, вперед vs впереди. – Adam Bittlingmayer Jan 2 '18 at 17:16
  • Not sure how "match" "verb" and "adverb" are being defined but if time words function adverbially then yesterday I went to the store vs. tomorrow I will go to the store seems to meet your criteria. – virmaior Jan 2 '18 at 17:46
  • I have a theory according to which adverbs should decline in a way corresponding to the way subject/object/indirect object do. But, so far as I know, they don't. (Please let me know if they do.) – Greg Lee Jan 2 '18 at 20:33
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Yes, there are supposed to be some languages that have adverbs that show inflectional agreement with the head verb. I don't know enough to give an overview, but one example seems to be Maori, where adverbs modifying a passive verb take passive marking, and those midifying a nominalized verb take nominalizing marking ("Formal Property Inheritance and Consonant/Zero Alternations in Maori Verbs", by Nicholas Kibre, October 1, 1998; p. 11).

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