In Matthew 27:46 (Mark 15:34), Jesus says "Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani (σαβαχθανί)", which is translated "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?".
Why is this supposedly Aramaic word transliterated into Greek as σαβαχθανί, with a Chi (χ), rather than as σαβακθανι with a Kappa (κ)?
The Aramaic word is said to be "שְׁבַק" ("to leave, depart; abandon; permit" - Daniel 4:23, Ezra 6:7). Is there any other example of the Hebrew letter Qoph (ק) being transliterated into Greek which could support this convention?
When I read it, it suggests the Hebrew "שיבח \ שִׁבֵּחַ" ("to praise"), with a Heth, (presumably?) cognate with Arabic سَبَحَ "to swim, to float; to praise, to glorify". About the Tasbih it is said "The phrase often has the connotation of praising God for his total perfection". So Jesus could be asking why he was praised, glorified, or perfected. Not that this makes sense, because in the aforementioned New Testament verses it is later translated as the Greek εγκατέλιπές, meaning "abandoned"; obviously the listeners in the crowd heard it as a different word. I guess I'm just curious about the choice of transliteration.