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Is it accurate to say that the Spanish language has no connection whatsoever with the Greek language? If not, and if possible, about how much can we safely say there is?

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    >about how much can we safely say there is - that would be problematic. I'm not aware of any quantitative measure of a degree of languages' connection. – tum_ Jul 26 at 22:11
  • There is something called conditional entropy explained in this NativLang video to measure how similar two languages are. However, this relies on a mathematical formula, which places it out of reach of a casual linguist. – Toby Mak Aug 4 at 4:26
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    And yet... and yet there is an unexpected affinity of the respective phonologies. People have puzzled about it for decades, but I have not heard anything suggestive, so far. In particular, the transitional b,d,g --> β, γ, δ transition, ongoing in Spaanish, and all-but-completed in Modern Greek has been an enduring source of public fascination. – Cosmas Zachos Aug 6 at 19:45
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No, it isn't.

Spanish and Greek are both part of the Indogermanic language family and therefore historically connected. However, this historic connection is rather old, the split between proto-Greek and proto-Italic dates back at least 4000 years. The split is that old that there is no mutual intelligibility between Spanish and Greek left.

In addition, Modern Spanish has absorbed a lot of learned loans coined from Ancient Greek mostly for medical and technical vocabulary. This gives another connection to the Greek language.

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