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31

The World Atlas of Language Structures has a feature about gender distinctions in personal pronouns. According to it, there are at least 254 languages without gender distinctions and even 2 with gender distinctions in 1st and 2nd, but not 3rd person pronouns (Iraqw and Burunge).


27

In Thai, 1st person singular pronouns differ by gender: Masc.: ผม [pʰǒm] Fem.: ดิฉัน [dìʔt͡ɕʰán]


24

There are many such languages. Examples include Turkic languages (as kiyoshigaang's answer mentions), Uralic languages (such as Finnish, Hungarian, Estonian), spoken Mandarin and Cantonese, and doubtless many others. Languages which lack grammatical gender generally will usually lack gendered third-person pronouns specifically (although there are exceptions ...


23

Coming at this from a different direction, Japanese personal pronouns (*) are an open class, with many variations in meaning and connotation. So while there's no official "first-person masculine pronoun", 俺 (ore) is primarily used by men, and あたし (atashi) primarily by women. Others, like 私 (watashi), don't have strong gender associations. All of ...


22

Proto-Afro-Asiatic likely marked gender on second-person pronouns, and many of its descendants do the same. For example, second-person singular masculine is אַתָּה (ʔattāh) in Hebrew, أَنْتَ‎ (ʔanta) in Arabic, atta in Akkadian, ntk in Egyptian; feminine is Hebrew אַתְּ (ʔattə), Arabic أَنْتِ (ʔanti), Akkadian atti, Egyptian ntṯ. I don't know of any Afro-...


20

Check out the Punjabi language. Well spoken by the Sikh culture. Many, many, many names are genderless. Only in modern times (past 50–100 years) have there started to exist some names that are more associated with one gender than the other. This website, Baby Names World, would fool you into thinking that's not the case. But I know many people whose names ...


20

The first thing I thought of was names derived in antiquity from the names of ancient Greek goddesses. For example, the French male name Hercule is ultimately from the name of the Greek goddess Hera (Ἥρα) (it's not just a masculinized form of the name, though, obviously). The name Artemio seems to be used in Italian and Spanish; I believe it comes from the ...


17

There is no simple answer. In languages with gender - less than half* - the gender of specific words often varies not just by time but by dialect. Likewise it varies across languages in a language family, for example the Romance languages. (And specifically for cognates, not just for loanwords and neologisms.) Using the modern Romance languages and Latin ...


16

If the source language already has genders, then they will often be taken along to the host language, provided that people in the host language know a little bit about the source language. But there are countless other subtle, complex factors. Dutch has a neuter article (het) and the fused/common gender masculine-femine (de). There are no definite rules for ...


12

Vietnamese names, like Chinese, have no specific name set. So the choice depends on the parents or the person who gives the name. They can choose any syllable they like to combine into the name. But of course there's a set of words that are much more commonly appear in names because they are "more beautiful" words. However Vietnamese name have no limit in ...


12

In Spanish that happends for plural: nosotros (1st person plural masculine) nosotras (1st person plural femenine) In Japanese there are several forms for the first form depending on gender or even age! watashi (I, for boys although it can be used by girls too) atashi (I, for feminine) The funny thing is that they are written the same: 私. For plural, the same ...


10

The Beti-Fang subgroup of languages of Cameroon (and I suspect other related Bantu languages) have this property. Example languages are Ewondo, Fang, Ntumu, Bulu. Like most Bantu languages, there is a class system involved in agreement and singular / plural formation. Adjectives, which are pre-nominal, have a lexical class, but demonstratives and numerals, ...


10

It depends on whether you mean strictly English (since gender is an English word) or do you include the historical antecedents in other languages. The origin of the concept and term is Aristotle in Rhetoric (though Aristotle attributes the idea to Protagoras), and the Greek term is genos, which simply means "kind". It worked its way into French as genre, ...


10

In Italian there are a number of historically female names which are occasionally used as male names, e.g. Celeste, Amabile, Fiore, Diamante In many Romance languages the female name Maria (or some variant thereof) has historically been used in male names, either standalone or as part of a compound name, though this practise has generally declined with ...


10

Although adverb agreement in gender/noun class is far from ubiquitous, there seem to be (apparent) examples of this kind of agreement in a fair number of languages. I am most familiar with examples of gender-agreeing adverbs from Indo-European, since that is a large and well-studied family containing many languages with gender systems. But there do seem to ...


8

Yes, there are such languages. Here's an excerpt from the annotation to Heidi Newell's „A Consideration Of Feminine Default Gender“ (2005): Languages with gender assignment must also deal with ambiguous and unknown gender. The gender used for an unknown or ambiguous gender is the default gender. In some languages all nouns must be assigned a gender. ...


8

Properties of individual languages don't necessarily solve problems. Spanish children learn gender of nouns because it would be wrong to say "el aguo", and they learn what their parents say, who in turn learned what their parents said, an so on back to Latin and before. "Gender" is just one version of noun class systems. It's not clear whether you mean "...


8

Neuter in Latin differed from Masculine only for Nominative and Accusative cases. When case-endings began to collapse in early Proto-Romance, Neuter singular was reassigned to masculine and some Neuter plural ending in -a became feminine singular.


8

I've read that even in Latin, we see some variability in the declension of words as neuter or masculine. Sometimes the use of the masculine where neuter would be expected is attributed to "personification". So the fall of the neuter seems to have been a long and at least somewhat gradual process. I will update this post if I find more detailed ...


7

Turkish doesn't have gender in third person pronouns. For example, if one says "Onu, okulda gördüm.", it can interpreted either "I saw her at school" or " I saw him at school".


7

Georgian lacks gender specific third person pronouns: ის (is) covers "he", "she", "it"; and also "this". იგი (igi) covers "he" and "she". Mongolian is another language that doesn't specify gender in third person pronouns: тэр (ter) is a deictic / demonstrative meaning "that", and is covers "he", "she", and "it".


7

It's all simple: you cannot put an indefinite article before every noun, but definite articles have no limitations, every noun can have a definite article. The point is, in most European languages with articles (including English) the indefinite articles developed from the word "one" and in most of those languages it is still identical to the word "one". ...


7

To some extent, this is just a question of terminology. In some languages, it is conventional to speak of "genders"; in others, "noun classes"; in some languages, the plural is considered to be one of the genders/noun classes, while in others, it isn't. In general, though, my impression is that linguists tend not to consider plural to be a distinct ...


6

In the Finnish language we do not have separate words for him/her but instead use the word "hän" to refer to a person of either gender. For finns learning English it can be a challenge to understand that when you refer to a third person you'll also need to specify their gender.


6

North Indian Languages, eg. Hindi/Urdu (Indo-European). Even though there are gendered nouns, there are no gendered pronouns. Even first (मैं) and second (तुम-informal/आप-formal) person pronouns are gender-neutral. All nouns are gendered, though. For example, a table (मेज़) is feminine while a pen (कलम) is masculine. वह आदमी है। (He’s a man.) वह औरत है। (...


6

Welsh shows some signs of a semantic classifying system in its noun plurals. There are a great many plural affixes in Welsh, partly reflecting the old stem-endings of nouns (which have often disappeared in the singular forms due to the loss of final vowels) and partly reflecting new analogical processes based on semantics. For example, the suffix -od very ...


6

No. English speakers refer to all countries as "it", not "he" or "she", except occasionally in a poetic or rhetorical context.


6

No, not anymore so than in English. In German, Herr Pferd and Frau Pferd both work. Pferd is neuter, and I think that is almost the answer right there: so-called grammatical genders are just noun classes, in IE languages there are often three classes, not two, so how would a strict 1:1 mapping to two forms of address even be possible? Bär is masculine. ...


6

In German, diminutives are almost always neuter, even when they refer to humans, like Mädchen "girl". In Ancient Greek, similarly, παιδίον "child". German also has some non-diminutive neuter words for humans, like Weib "woman". In Latin, words for humans tend to be either common (they take on the grammatical gender of their referent) or epicene (they have a ...


6

Long ago many words ended in sounds which were for some reason lost. It was those now lost sounds that triggered different kinds of assimilation and other consonant changes in the words that followed them. E.g.: Welsh bach [baχ] 'little', but merch fach [merχ vaχ] 'little girl': in Proto-Celtic 'girl' was *merkā, so the [b] of bach got between 2 vowels and ...


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